http://www.powerlineblog.com/archives/2018/02/why-mueller-didnt-indict-the-russians-for-meddling-in-the-presidential-election.phpRoscoePColtrane said:
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So the Russians obviously violated this statute, by the wording later in the indictment itself. It implies they spent millions of dollars to promote the candidacies of Bernie Sanders, Donald Trump and Jill Stein, and to oppose the candidacies of Hillary Clinton, Ted Cruz and Marco Rubio. As well as stage rallies both for and against Trump after he was elected. So why weren't they charged with the most pertinent crime they committed? Perhaps because Christopher Steele arguably violated the same law? He is a foreign national, and he contributed a "thing of value" to the Hillary Clinton campaign, namely the fake dossier. Sounds like ll hat and no cattle if you ask me. This indictment isn't worth the paper it's printed on, namely because none of the Russians will ever see a US courtroom. Mueller will never have to present a real case, it's just a bunch of words.
Also WTF look at Section 2 of 52 U.S.C. 30121 Section 2 states it is a crime to "solicit, accept, or receive" such a contribution from a foreign national. Isn't that what the Perkins, Coie law firm, the Clinton campaign, the DNC, and probably Hillary herself, did? That's a little gray to me, so I need a better legal eye to explain that perhaps. Because I doubt that any election lawyer could come up with a defense for Christopher Steele, were he to be charged with violating 30121. AND THAT is a can of worms that Mueller didn't want to open. Too many people know the facts behind the Steele dossier, and if he had charged the Russians with meddling in the presidential election under 30121, he would have faced questions about why he didn't indict Steele and Glenn Simpson, Perkins, Coie, and any Clinton campaign officials, and perhaps Clinton herself for the same offenses.
This window dressing of an indictment is purposely worded this way in order to avoid that pitfall, I suspect, that Mueller overlooked the most relevant federal offense that the Russians committed, and instead charged them with a vague "conspiracy to defraud," along with wire fraud, bank fraud and identity theft. The first charge is entirely discretionary by Mueller and done purposely. And besides Steele didn't commit wire fraud, bank fraud or identity theft that we know of. Once again it appears Mueller is all hat and no cattle, and he's just like was said before by myself and Ms Hawg, Mueller is trying to save face and justify his invoice. I think that is why Mueller chose not to actually indict the Russians for meddling in a U.S. presidential election, and indict them for basically BS crimes. And that this wording in this indictment is purposely misleading to give the appearance of more than it really is.
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Why Mueller Didn't Indict the Russians For Meddling In the Presidential Election [Updated]
.........the question remains: why did Mueller recite in the indictment's first paragraph that it is against the law for foreign nationals to spend money to influence U. S. elections, implicitly recognizing that that was the essence of what the Russians did, and then not charge them with that crime?
This article agrees with your hypothesis above.