A special prayer for the Jews and those who do not believe in Christ for Holy Week

19,215 Views | 262 Replies | Last: 9 mo ago by Aggrad08
Aggrad08
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This is also something commonly taught by other religions. I've literally had Mormons come and tell me to do the exact same thing with the Book of Mormon.

Is prayer the only outlet? What other decrenment is allowed? That's less a question for you though. As you have applied your reasoning to what you think the character of god is and what an ETC hell would mean about that character. Some here are arguing we shouldn't do that, it's far too arrogant.
Quo Vadis?
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Aggrad08 said:

Some other guy says Islam. Another LDS. Another say Judaism. Throw in a Hindu for fun. How do we figure out who's correct if you can't make judgements towards religion/gods


Use reason. Show me a God who benefits nothing from creation, yes assumed the form of creation so that they would be able to comprehend the incomprehensible.
Aggrad08
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Quo Vadis? said:

Aggrad08 said:

Some other guy says Islam. Another LDS. Another say Judaism. Throw in a Hindu for fun. How do we figure out who's correct if you can't make judgements towards religion/gods


Use reason. Show me a God who benefits nothing from creation, yes assumed the form of creation so that they would be able to comprehend the incomprehensible.


I was told above we couldn't use human reasoning. Hell I was even told we couldn't use logic. Once you accept these two are applicable I have no more disagreement on approach. Simply disagreement on the answer.
dermdoc
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Aggrad08 said:

This is also something commonly taught by other religions. I've literally had Mormons come and tell me to do the exact same thing with the Book of Mormon.

Is prayer the only outlet? What other decrenment is allowed? That's less a question for you though. As you have applied your reasoning to what you think the character of god is and what an ETC hell would mean about that character. Some here are arguing we shouldn't do that, it's far too arrogant.
I haven't seen that on here. Only polite disagreement. And the concept of hell, in my opinion, is a very small part of Jesus's teaching and is not to me clearly explained. Same goes for heaven and New Jerusalem and Earth. And I used Scripture to come to view on hell after praying for wisdom and discernment. Not just my reason. Although I firmly believe God gave us reason and common sense.

Jesus taught mainly how to live this life so you can have the most joyful and abundant life possible.

Gospel means good news. God loves you. He wants a relationship with you. He knows the number of hairs on your head.
Aggrad08
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I fully agree that very little time in the Bible is spent on the afterlife. But a very significant amount of time is spent on the afterlife in theology, apologetics and evangelism. Funny how that turned out.

Regardless it seems many pray for decernment and study and reason with the words and come to a very different version of hell.

This is true for Muslims also I've observed.
dermdoc
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And the greatest evangelist of all time, Paul, never used the word hell, compare his sermons to Evangelical sermons today. Totally different. About the good news if the Kingdom of God..

Just keep searching and you will find Him.
Quo Vadis?
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Aggrad08 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

Aggrad08 said:

Some other guy says Islam. Another LDS. Another say Judaism. Throw in a Hindu for fun. How do we figure out who's correct if you can't make judgements towards religion/gods


Use reason. Show me a God who benefits nothing from creation, yes assumed the form of creation so that they would be able to comprehend the incomprehensible.


I was told above we couldn't use human reasoning. Hell I was even told we couldn't use logic. Once you accept these two are applicable I have no more disagreement on approach. Simply disagreement on the answer.


You're mistaken, and you know it. God transcends reason, but it is one of the ways we can know God.

Thr fact that God is not bound by the limits of the human understanding of the natural world doesn't make him unreasonable.
Aggrad08
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Quo Vadis? said:

Aggrad08 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

Aggrad08 said:

Some other guy says Islam. Another LDS. Another say Judaism. Throw in a Hindu for fun. How do we figure out who's correct if you can't make judgements towards religion/gods


Use reason. Show me a God who benefits nothing from creation, yes assumed the form of creation so that they would be able to comprehend the incomprehensible.


I was told above we couldn't use human reasoning. Hell I was even told we couldn't use logic. Once you accept these two are applicable I have no more disagreement on approach. Simply disagreement on the answer.


You're mistaken, and you know it. God transcends reason, but it is one of the ways we can know God.

Thr fact that God is not bound by the limits of the human understanding of the natural world doesn't make him unreasonable.


I don't know it. Not at all. Particularly when someone says you can't even apply reason.


Also define unreasonable.
Zobel
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Nobody said you couldn't apply reason and it's this exact stupid kind of reductionism that is the problem.

There are limits to reason, and even the actual structure of logic itself proves this. So the question you're asking is literally unanswerable within the framework of logic. Again, if the question is part of a formal system, the system is necessarily incomplete and the fundamental axiom is unprovable or the system must be inconsistent. If it is not, then there is no reason to expect the answer to be formal.

You could say that Plato maybe intuited or anticipated Gödel, and perhaps that's true. But the fact that logic is insufficient for truth should teach us something. It is not an end.
Aggrad08
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You are trying to have your cake and eat it too. If you want to deny the use of the law of non contradiction you don't get to do that as is convenient. And once again I see no limitation that it only applies within a formal system. I see no scenario where non contradiction doesn't apply thus far in our universe. To say I'm requiring the universe to be a complete formal system is false. Making it a formal system would mean it's fully described by math and incomplete. It not being formal means it's not fully described by math. It doesn't at all necessarily follow that non contradiction is violated in reality. And if it is, you have to apply that consistently which is impossible.

Making a special exception for non contradiction within religion is not something that makes near as much sense to me as concluding as religious idea that violates it is simply incorrect. And any method by which you would dismiss another religion will require non contradiction to be sensible.

Zobel
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First, no one has proposed a contradiction. Nobody is denying non-contradiction. The question about whether God is good because the standard of Good applies to His actions or because He applies Good to His actions doesn't imply a contradiction. It proposes a dichotomy

I really think this is just you not understanding how Gödel comes to play here. Euthyphro's dilemma is a dilemma because it assumes a formal, axiomatic structure for morality - the choice is between divine command or independent good. It takes formality for granted because it follows a logical structure.

There are only two ways to understand this, then. If reality - or in this case, morality - is a not formal system, then the system is not bound by axiomatic constraints. "Good" can emerge from context, intuition, or human experience. Euthyphro's dilemma is also false in this case, because there is a non-axiomatic definition of good that can be used.

The second is that morality is a formal system, in which case the logical standard has to apply and be answered as you demand. However, Gödel's incompleteness theorems also must apply, meaning that morality is either incomplete or inconsistent. Euthyphro's dilemma is answerable by positing "good" as a fundamental axiom, outside of the system's completeness, and therefore not derived from divine command OR an independent standard. Good is intrinsically defined, which denies the binary choice.

You can't assert a logical requirement to define Good - which implies formality - while not accepting the limitations of formality. Make sense?
Aggrad08
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Zobel said:

First, no one has proposed a contradiction. Nobody is denying non-contradiction. The question about whether God is good because the standard of Good applies to His actions or because He applies Good to His actions doesn't imply a contradiction. It proposes a dichotomy

I really think this is just you not understanding how Gödel comes to play here. Euthyphro's dilemma is a dilemma because it assumes a formal, axiomatic structure for morality - the choice is between divine command or independent good. It takes formality for granted because it follows a logical structure.

There are only two ways to understand this, then. If reality - or in this case, morality - is a not formal system, then the system is not bound by axiomatic constraints. "Good" can emerge from context, intuition, or human experience. Euthyphro's dilemma is also false in this case, because there is a non-axiomatic definition of good that can be used.

The second is that morality is a formal system, in which case the logical standard has to apply and be answered as you demand. However, Gödel's incompleteness theorems also must apply, meaning that morality is either incomplete or inconsistent. Euthyphro's dilemma is answerable by positing "good" as a fundamental axiom, outside of the system's completeness, and therefore not derived from divine command OR an independent standard. Good is intrinsically defined, which denies the binary choice.

You can't assert a logical requirement to define Good - which implies formality - while not accepting the limitations of formality. Make sense?


Euthyphros dilemma does not require a formal axiomatic structure to be understood anymore than any plain sentence with a logical inference.

That said. Even if you used classical logic and approach it that way there is no issue.

I think the major misunderstanding here is that you are grossly overestimating what Gödel did and didn't prove.

Godels proof applies to omega consistent mathematical systems or containing Robinsons arithmetic.These are particular formal logics axiomized and robust enough to prove a sufficient number of facts about natural numbers.

Within this category Gödel proved your system will either be incomplete or inconsistent:

"no consistent system of axioms whose theorems can be listed by an effective procedure (i.e. an algorithm) is capable of proving all truths about the arithmetic of natural numbers. For any such consistent formal system, there will always be statements about natural numbers that are true, but that are unprovable within the system.

The second incompleteness theorem, an extension of the first, shows that the system cannot demonstrate its own consistency."

The gist is that he shows all these systems have self references of the form "this statement is false" for example. Which are trivially easy for a thinking person to ignore but are problematic if you want a computer to prove all of math.

That's it. The sum total of godels theorem says if you are looking for an ideal complete mathematics you are out of luck. It was an answer to hilberts problem.

Gödel's theorems show limits of formal systems doing math, not of reasoning itself. Euthyphro's logic is philosophical reasoning, not a formal system vulnerable to Gödel's limits.

Logical reasoning remains sound for drawing philosophical distinctions and exploring conceptual dilemmas, regardless of whether reality as a whole can be captured by any formal system. In fact Gödel himself demonstrated that classical first order logic is complete in his completeness theorem. Further Gödel uses classical logic to prove incompleteness.

In other words, the dilemma does not rely on an axiomatic definition of "good". Rather, it uses classical logical reasoning to explore the relationship between moral facts and divine authority . And this reasoning remains intact regardless of whether morality is formalized or not.

Basically you are tying to force feed classical logic through the tube of a formal mathematical logic incorrectly as a way to wriggle out the problematic logical deductions that arise from the argument . And this basic categorical error would apply to virtually every statement of classical logic were we to allow this argument consistently.

The argument that morality can arise from context or intuition is merely choosing one horn of the dilemma or rejecting good as objectively defined. Neither of which is problematic for me.


Zobel
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your objection is similar to proposing zeno's paradox and then saying no no we can't solve that using calculus, we weren't talking about math. you want a system formal enough to say things like "law of noncontradiction" and force a binary, but not so formal that it becomes answerable. which is to say, an argument merely of convenience.
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Gödel's theorems show limits of formal systems doing math, not of reasoning itself. Euthyphro's logic is philosophical reasoning, not a formal system vulnerable to Gödel's limits.
lol no, this is one of the silliest things youve ever said. philosophical reasoning fundamentally relies on logic to structure arguments and assure coherence, and to derive conclusions systematically. Gödel's theorems show the limits to axiomatic reasoning and that can apply to any philosophical system with sufficient expressiveness. dismissing this ignores how logic underpins the statements you want to use.

but that's fine. let's actually do the exercise.

let's create a moral system E for Euthyphro, call it MSE.

we'll use constants that represent specific actions (a1, a2 etc) and natural numbers (0, 1, 2)
it has predicates, such as G(a) meaning action a is good, D(a) meaning action a is commanded by the gods, and I(a) meaning action a is good according to an independent standard.

we'll use arithmetic symbols to represent things like addition (+) equality (=) or a successor function S(n) = n + 1 along with logical connectives, quantifiers, and variables to note different actions or numbers (like x, y, etc).

this system has a syntax, like moral statements, arithmetic statements, and the combination of them.

put together three groups of axioms: moral axioms M for the dilemma itself, arithmetic axioms A, and consistency axiom C. we'll call them M1, M2... A1, A2... etc

M1 states that for all x(G(x) if and only if (D(x) or I(x))) --- meaning an action is good if and only if it is either commanded by the gods or good by an independent standard. this is the dilemma's binary for two possible sources of goodness.

M2 states there does not exist x ((D(x) and I(x)) --- meaning no action is both commanded by the gods and good by an independent standard. this is mutual exclusivity - can't be both derived from command and the independent standard - no overlap.

M3 states there exists x G(x) -- meaning at least one good action does in fact exist. this is makes the system nontrivial such as morality exists.

M4 states that for all x (D(x) -> G(x)) --- meaning if an action is commanded by the gods, it is good. this is a tentative, because it may conflict with M5 which says...

M5 for all x (I(x) -> G(h)) -- meaning if an action is good by an independent standard of good, then it is good. M4 and M5 together may lead to inconsistency - the whole crux of the matter. it is possible that M4 and M5 must be taken as competing hypothesis to avoid contradictions, i haven't considered this long enough to know if i have enough constraints here.

Alright, then we have arithmetic axioms.

A1: for all x ( S(x) =! 0) --- the successor for any number is not zero

A2: for all x and for all y (S(x) = S(y) -> x = y) --- if the successors of two numbers are equal, then the numbers themselves are equal

A3: for all x (x+0=x) --- adding zero to a number yields the same number

A4: for all x and for all y (x+S(y) = S(x+y)) -- addition is defined recursively via the successor meaning x+(y+1) is the same as (x+y)+1

A5: for all x (x*0=0) --- any number times zero is zero

A6: for all x and for all y (x*S(y) = (x*y) + x) --- multiplication is defined recursively

and finally consistency axiom C1: the system is consistent

the system MSE follows inference rules:
modus ponens (or the rule of detachment) where if P and P -> Q, then Q
universal generalization: if P(x) is provable for an arbitrary x, then for all x P(x)
and standard logical rules (not, and, or, therefore, equivalent, exists)

now, within that framework we can take the first incompleteness theorem. P: this statement is not provable in MSE. If P is true, it is not provable (as it claims). If P is false, it is provable, which is a contradiction since a false statement being provable is an inconsistency. if we assume consistency, P is true but not provable.

within MSE itself, if we construct a statement Q such that:
Q is for every x (G(x) <-> exists y) where y is a fundamental moral principle
here goodness is defined by a fundamental moral principle, neither divine nor independent but intrinsic. this could be unprovable in MSE, where "good" is an axiom outside of the system's completeness.

the second incompleteness theorem would be that MSE cannot prove its own consistency. so if we say "MSE does not prove a contradiction" that is unprovable within MSE.

applying this to Euthyphro's dilemma, we would posit "good" as a fundamental axiom within MSE, unprovable within the system but nevertheless true - which is NEITHER of the options presented (divine command, or independent standard).

Axiom G: there exists x G(x) AND for all x (G(x) -> not (D(x) <-> I(x))) --- meaning there exists a good action, and goodness is not reducible to either divine command or an independent standard alone.

This statement is true within MSE, but is unprovable within the system.

///////////

So again, if we're going to play around with logic, unless you can find a problem with the logic above, "good" can logically be an unprovable axiom which resolves the dilemma by making good intrinsic, not derived from either divine command OR the independent standard. and similarly, if morality is not a formal system then the dilemma is similarly false, because "good" can emerge non-axiomatically from context or intuition.

the dilemma's basic assumption is that of a logical, axiomatic structure which invite's Gödel's analysis, and the unprovable nature of good within that structure defeats the binary choice presented. this removes the tension between arbitrariness and subordination. either way the dilemma is false.


Quote:

The argument that morality can arise from context or intuition is merely choosing one horn of the dilemma or rejecting good as objectively defined. Neither of which is problematic for me.
it literally is not. i invite you to prove it.
Zobel
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i'll follow this up by saying i remember the kind of helpless indignity i felt the first time i was presented an argument like this. i had nearly the identical reaction - well that's just word games, it doesn't mean it's true or real. the problem with that becomes readily apparent, as we're trying to communicate using a language with syntax and we need things like noncontradiction to make sense of things. we can't dismiss them as wordplay, they're necessary and just as real as any other communicative element. the arguments here are not only about the limits of arithmetic or formal systems but also show us - prove to us, actually - the limits to finality in our efforts to rigorously define anything. that's why i said in my post earlier, try to define energy or temperature. you can treat morality as special, but in the end it's all a model of some sort of other, and there is an end where you take an assumption. it is unavoidable. if true for arithmetic, how much more true for something that by definition exists outside of our reality?
one MEEN Ag
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I reject this because its not written in LaTex.
AGC
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one MEEN Ag said:

I reject this because its not written in LaTex.


Some people are allergic to LaTex.
Martin Q. Blank
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All that and not one edit.

one MEEN Ag
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Couple of things revealed the last few pages:
08 has shown that he really doesn't understand the variety of religions in this world. As long as they all claim good on the surface they are all the same underneath and can all be lumped together. Because, remember, good is higher than God. And if we can lump good together we can also lump gods and religion together. This is easily false. Not all religions make claims about evil, nor provide solutions to evil or a means of salvation. This is particularly true of pagan religions before Christ. Yeah demons don't care about solving the problem of evil and its truly just a transaction of child sacrifice for material wealth. Go figure.

But even moreso, you cannot extract a definition of religion that purely identifies just religions and does not include the philosophical framework surrounding how modernist view science. Go ahead, try to find a definition all encompassing of religion that covers all religions and only religions. 08's trying on this thread but is coming up with his own axioms about how Godel isn't philosophical framework. These are his own religious views. You quickly realize that you just wind up painting arbitrary lines around what is and isn't religion and what is and isn't science. Usually this strand of modernism goes the way of, 'religion is tasked with answering the question of goodness' and we're right back to not understanding how goodness is inextricable from God.

There is this huge framework on specifically the word good and the way in which humans can infer knowledge that 08 says is impassable and foundational. I'm not going to repeat Zobel here but approach from a different angle.

Forget the word good and evil exist for a second. If you are Adam in the garden, how do you even know what good is? You recognize it innately by its energies and there isn't even a separate word to describe it. Its just the presence of God. You see flourishing, peace, love, kindness. Remember, the garden of eden is wherever the presence of God is. There isn't this platonic =sum() that goes oh that is 'goodness!'. It isn't until Adam sees death, destruction, disobedience is he able to even come up with a concept of evil.

Good and evil are downstream epistemologically of the binary of in the presence of God. And anything that tries to uproot God from that framework (i.e. saying logic is upstream not God) has to contend with the fallout of that.
one MEEN Ag
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AGC said:

one MEEN Ag said:

I reject this because its not written in LaTex.
Some people are allergic to LaTex.
Word.
kurt vonnegut
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In conclusion, God's goodness is a concept that is so easy and so engrained into our hearts that anyone who is exceptionally well versed in philosophy, theology, epistemic logic, and proficient in the justification of epistemology using logical principals can sorta understand it.


Zobel
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exploring a little further now that we have sidestepped the two horns - goodness as an external standard or arbitrary divine fiat - because because goodness is either beyond formal proof or not subject to formalization... how does the orthodox experiential reality of God's energy fit in?

if reality (or morality) can be formalized, then there are truths like God's goodness that can't be proven within the system. God as the uncreated source is outside of the system and unbound by its axioms and unprovable. His goodness is encountered from beyond the system's limits. Participation transcends the system altogether. When you participate you're encountering the transcendent. When you love your neighbor you're not applying a formal rule like "maximize utility," you're joining in God's work which is outside of the system's provability. You're stepping into that "outside" space. God's goodness can't be formalized but it can be known by joining in, which produce observable results (life, order, flourishing). That flourishing can't be fully formalized but is also undeniably real - like the Gödelian statement above, true but only provable by going beyond the axiom.

if we take the alternate tack and say well it can't be formalized then the participation is even more intuitive. without that systematic rule-based definition, goodness isn't a deducible thing at all, it is revealed and experienced. So again when you love someone - like praying for someone who curses you - you're not doing a logical exercise, you're not just doing "good stuff", you're encountering God's love and justice. The flourishing that results is the proof, and you know goodness by experience.

the key is that participation isn't about defining goodness, it's knowing it through relationship and how it changes you. participation is the externality to the formal system, the outside perspective. When you love, forgive, you encounter a truth that is beyond a formal proof. and similarly, if we ignore a formality, then the proof itself is in the flourishing that people who participate in God's love experience and share. People who do that come alive, and become more human. Whether morality is formal or non-formal doesn't really matter, the Orthodox approach is equally valid. This is true because in Orthodoxy "good" isn't a reified thing, it is God Himself in His actions.
Zobel
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actually I would say that it is so easy and engrained into our reality that anyone who encounters it knows it, and that is precisely why the dilemma or any other logical framework fail to even provide something useful to sink your teeth into. in the end, we can use logic itself to prove why that's so. it doesn't change that you and i both know what love and flourishing and 'good' are.
dermdoc
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Zobel, your last two posts are why I have become convinced salvation is ontological and not judicial. When you search for and find God, you find incredible peace and joy. Truly changed. Born again.

Thanks again.
AggieRain
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Just chiming in to let y'all know how incredibly unintelligent this board makes me feel.

Keep up the good work, fellas...
one MEEN Ag
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AggieRain said:

Just chiming in to let y'all know how incredibly unintelligent this board makes me feel.

Keep up the good work, fellas...
Just want to take a sidestep to say that Orthodoxy understands how complex it is and highlights there is a dual parallel track we walk during our lives. One is growing in knowledge about God, virtues, the church, church history, scriptures, and church fathers. Things that fit in books, forums, and wikis. Knowledge you could surmise as countably infinite.

But the other track is living it out and growing these virtues. Prayer, fasting, almsgiving. Baptism, chrismation, confession, communion. Loving one another, forgiving one another, etc. Things that don't fit into books, forums and wikis and is uncountably infinite.

They are both important and are both necessary for us to properly align our lives and produce fruit. Focusing on one track exclusively can come at the detriment of the other. Pure textual criticism that you see in protestant seminaries is hollow. Pure universalist love for the sake of love doesn't rightly tie the energies back to its essence and becomes unmoored.

At the root is God revealing himself as God. Not man reasoning his way to God. Accept that we are limited in using reason in front of God but that he has revealed enough to us to live out pious fruitful lives.

Liturgy is at 10 this Sunday for all. Come taste and see.
kurt vonnegut
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Zobel said:

actually I would say that it is so easy and engrained into our reality that anyone who encounters it knows it, and that is precisely why the dilemma or any other logical framework fail to even provide something useful to sink your teeth into. in the end, we can use logic itself to prove why that's so. it doesn't change that you and i both know what love and flourishing and 'good' are.

Definitions of love and flourishing and good all seem to me to be very culturally dependent. If ALL people understood goodness the same, wouldn't we expect to observe societies throughout time all converging toward the same definitions?

I struggle with argument that understanding of God's goodness (or whoever this should be phrased) being engrained into everyone in light of the variation in moral standards we see through the world and especially through history. Outside of some items essential for cooperation and survival, it seems to me that the understanding of goodness as you've described is something learned.
Zobel
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i think the variance is not on understanding what love, life, and flourishing are. the difference comes down to whether people should encourage love, life, and flourishing, and often who is even a person that they deserve those things.
Quo Vadis?
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kurt vonnegut said:

Zobel said:

actually I would say that it is so easy and engrained into our reality that anyone who encounters it knows it, and that is precisely why the dilemma or any other logical framework fail to even provide something useful to sink your teeth into. in the end, we can use logic itself to prove why that's so. it doesn't change that you and i both know what love and flourishing and 'good' are.

Definitions of love and flourishing and good all seem to me to be very culturally dependent. If ALL people understood goodness the same, wouldn't we expect to observe societies throughout time all converging toward the same definitions?

I struggle with argument that understanding of God's goodness (or whoever this should be phrased) being engrained into everyone in light of the variation in moral standards we see through the world and especially through history. Outside of some items essential for cooperation and survival, it seems to me that the understanding of goodness as you've described is something learned.
I don't know how you can look at the disparate sections of the world having a gigantic overlap in moral standards and not see it pointing to some sort of code printed on the hearts of creation.

Most of the horrors that I see committed are from people who know what is right and what is wrong, but have convinced themselves that it doesn't apply to the people they want to wrong because they're different. This is the point of propaganda. Everyone knows that killing is bad, but the people they want to kill; its okay because they're subhuman/a different tribe/cursed
BonfireNerd04
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one MEEN Ag said:

I reject this because its not written in LaTex.
Are you Dr. Bart Childs?
kurt vonnegut
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Zobel said:

i think the variance is not on understanding what love, life, and flourishing are. the difference comes down to whether people should encourage love, life, and flourishing, and often who is even a person that they deserve those things.

In a sense, everyone who wishes to understand the meaning of love, life, and flourishing has a sample size of one (themselves) to pull from. How careful should we be about saying everyone else's understanding is the same?

In simple terms, the above feels like a claim that everyone knows what is right, but some just choose to do wrong. While that certainly applies in many cases, it feels dismissive of anyone with sincere belief in a variation of love and life and flourishing.
kurt vonnegut
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Quo Vadis? said:


I don't know how you can look at the disparate sections of the world having a gigantic overlap in moral standards and not see it pointing to some sort of code printed on the hearts of creation.

Most of the horrors that I see committed are from people who know what is right and what is wrong, but have convinced themselves that it doesn't apply to the people they want to wrong because they're different. This is the point of propaganda. Everyone knows that killing is bad, but the people they want to kill; its okay because they're subhuman/a different tribe/cursed

How would we distinguish between a moral code written onto our hearts or survival intuitions and biases that favor basic cooperation?

The second part, I feel, just describes tribalism, of which Christians have participated in and continue to participate in. You could argue that, at its core, Christianity encourages us to reject tribalism. . . . and I think that is great and a great lesson. So how do we move past our tribal instincts?
one MEEN Ag
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kurt vonnegut said:

Zobel said:

i think the variance is not on understanding what love, life, and flourishing are. the difference comes down to whether people should encourage love, life, and flourishing, and often who is even a person that they deserve those things.

In a sense, everyone who wishes to understand the meaning of love, life, and flourishing has a sample size of one (themselves) to pull from. How careful should we be about saying everyone else's understanding is the same?

In simple terms, the above feels like a claim that everyone knows what is right, but some just choose to do wrong. While that certainly applies in many cases, it feels dismissive of anyone with sincere belief in a variation of love and life and flourishing.
Does anyone really have a difference in definitions of love and life? Flourishing I'll give you is a more abstract concept that is more easily muddled by our earthly desires. But life and love? You really think there are a near infinite interpretations of those two definitions? Not the application of them, but the definition.

This is getting into utilitarianism that the only thing worth maximizing is the abstract concept of happiness itself. And they chose happiness because its implicitly a universally positive feeling. Doesn't matter how you contextualize happiness, but the abstract pursuit of it is good in utilitarianism.

Your first paragraph lends itself that if we are only allowing a sample size of one for evaluating any higher order morality, then its just opinions. This is just 'cultural contextualization.' I can't condemn moral abomination X because that is their culture and they agree its okay.
one MEEN Ag
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BonfireNerd04 said:

one MEEN Ag said:

I reject this because its not written in LaTex.
Are you Dr. Bart Childs?
I am not him, as he haunts the consciousnesses of students from the computer science department. I am the embodied pedanticism that emerges from the mechanical engineering department. But if mentioning LaTex also brings you horrible memories staying up too late trying to indent equations we are kindred spirits.
10andBOUNCE
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one MEEN Ag said:

kurt vonnegut said:

Zobel said:

i think the variance is not on understanding what love, life, and flourishing are. the difference comes down to whether people should encourage love, life, and flourishing, and often who is even a person that they deserve those things.

In a sense, everyone who wishes to understand the meaning of love, life, and flourishing has a sample size of one (themselves) to pull from. How careful should we be about saying everyone else's understanding is the same?

In simple terms, the above feels like a claim that everyone knows what is right, but some just choose to do wrong. While that certainly applies in many cases, it feels dismissive of anyone with sincere belief in a variation of love and life and flourishing.
Does anyone really have a difference in definitions of love and life? Flourishing I'll give you is a more abstract concept that is more easily muddled by our earthly desires. But life and love? You really think there are a near infinite interpretations of those two definitions? Not the application of them, but the definition.
I think true Biblical love is a much more complex characteristic of God than we give it credit for. It is not just a human emotion that we feel or something we experience in this life. So yes, I think from a Biblical perspective, the definition of love is all over the spectrum. Maybe that wasn't the question however.
one MEEN Ag
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10andBOUNCE said:

one MEEN Ag said:

kurt vonnegut said:

Zobel said:

i think the variance is not on understanding what love, life, and flourishing are. the difference comes down to whether people should encourage love, life, and flourishing, and often who is even a person that they deserve those things.

In a sense, everyone who wishes to understand the meaning of love, life, and flourishing has a sample size of one (themselves) to pull from. How careful should we be about saying everyone else's understanding is the same?

In simple terms, the above feels like a claim that everyone knows what is right, but some just choose to do wrong. While that certainly applies in many cases, it feels dismissive of anyone with sincere belief in a variation of love and life and flourishing.
Does anyone really have a difference in definitions of love and life? Flourishing I'll give you is a more abstract concept that is more easily muddled by our earthly desires. But life and love? You really think there are a near infinite interpretations of those two definitions? Not the application of them, but the definition.
I think true Biblical love is a much more complex characteristic of God than we give it credit for. It is not just a human emotion that we feel or something we experience in this life. So yes, I think from a Biblical perspective, the definition of love is all over the spectrum. Maybe that wasn't the question however.
The point I'm trying to make is that God has given man the ability to receive knowledge about God. This is partially the orthodox definition of the nous. All of mankind has the same nature, and that shows up in generally a universal understanding of basic concepts like love and life. I reject the idea that some cultures completely lack even a fundamental understanding of what love is. Its that baked into man's nature.
 
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