Why can he not accept or refuse the gift? That makes no sense.10andBOUNCE said:I reject the idea that the giver is responsible for the recipient's condition. The troubled man's own actions had put him in a situation in which he cannot accept that gift. The giver didn't contribute to the troubled man's downfall.Zobel said:
you started by listing what the giver should have doneQuote:
The giver should have mailed a check to the mortgage company and credited his account directly.but then you sayQuote:
You are assuming this completely strung out person who apparently has no ability to manage money is given a gift and somehow all the sudden has new revelation on how to live his life?this is objectively false. if (as you say) the recipient is incapable, then the responsibility is entirely on the generous man. you say even a truly good gift is not good if the recipient is incapable of receiving it - the gift giver should do more until the gift is received.Quote:
The generous man is not to blame. The recipient is.
but this puts the responsibility on the generous man, and no responsibility on the troubled man.
even more! it shows clearly that the generous man is not only responsible for the troubled man he gave a gift too, but even more responsible for the ones who he did not give anything to.
This makes God sole cause of salvation, and damnation. A person who has no agency can have no responsibility.
For the ones he did not give a gift to, that would no longer even make it a gift. It would be more of a debt, if it was something that was required to be given to everyone.
Yes, God is the sole cause of salvation, but no, God did not cause man to sin so that they could not receive his gift. So yes, man is still responsible.
And can you show me Scripture that states that Christ did not die for all?
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