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And no, Jesus definitely left no scriptures. The Holy Spirit inspired scriptures as a part of the teaching authority of the church that Jesus left. The church absolutely preceded scripture because the church (which is the people) is the one writing and promulgating it, through the inspiration of the Spirit. The church was the apostles. Then it was the apostles and their followers. Then it was those followers and their followers. And so on and so forth. That has never changed. The church was never a Bible inspired entity. The Bible is a part of the church. Now you can say that church is not the Catholic Church, but you cannot say the Bible created the church.
This is inaccurate for two different reasons.
First, the obvious. Jesus spends a lot of time with the Pharisees, Sadducees, and Apostles saying "it is written..." or pointing to the 10 commandments that Moses was given from God. Jesus
expected those groups to know the Scriptures of the Torah. This of course is all prior to His establishing of His Church.
There's two things we can takeaway from this. First, the Scriptures do not require an infallible group (church/chosen people/etc) to be maintained. God is fully capable of doing this. Second, Jesus knew, and fully expected his people to know this Word. Anything he would teach would not be a contradiction, but instead an addition to this Word.
Second, and maybe less obvious, but Jesus taught prior to the church being formed and the apostles and others spread the Words of Jesus. This is just common sense. The Church forms and people hear the Words and believe. It's not like the Jesus spoke in secret to the Apostles, and after he was gone, they got together and formed a Church, and then agreed to write things down. Jesus spoke, the Apostles taught and people saw fit to write down what they wrote. Paul in his letters often points out that he's writing to them what he's previously told them.
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And OT scriptures won't help you prove otherwise. Why else did Jesus appeal to the teachers and scribes as sitting on "the seat of Moses" and to do whatever those teachers told them to do? Matthew 23. Despite all of the hypocrisies he declares they commit in that chapter, he still tells the people they are to be listened to. What He did not do is tell them that they could understand those OT scriptures for themselves apart from the teachers. He never inspired anyone to break off. He was here to fulfill the Jewish faith and bring gentiles to it, not to leave it in the dust and blaze a new path.
Matthew 23 doesn't help you. That a group of infallible men could know what the Scriptures are, but not understand them doesn't help a claim of an infallible church that you're making. And of course, Jesus is not telling the people to follow the additional 600+ commandments that this group deemed to be from God (Luke 15 and the Parable of the Sheep/Coin). Jesus is quite clear to follow the Word of God, not the Words of man.
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To your second point:. The medium changed? So the fullness and authority of teaching went from oral to written and stopped at written? No other authoritative oral teaching or clarification was needed? That would lead me to wonder why the heck we needed all the councils to do the defining of terms, rejection of heresies, and otherwise leading the faithful if it was all encapsulated in the Bible. The guys that got together to condemn those heresies could have been just as wrong as you or I.
Ah...now we get to the crux of it. Yes of course the medium changed. I don't think anybody is arguing that the Scriptures represent "new" teachings, as in what Matthew, Mark, John, Paul, etc wrote was brand new never heard from stuff. They wrote down what they received and what they taught.
But then you get to it. What about all the other traditions? And my response is pretty simple. Traditions are good and well, but we have no way to validate them, which makes them infallible and not commandments from God for us to follow.
Since this thread is about Nicaea 2, we can use it as our example.
Does scripture clearly teach Icon veneration? No. Arguably more versus would seem to condemn it than affirm it. We can note that the iconoclasm councils (there were a couple) were more scripturally based.
Does history support these claims? No. It's mixed at best. There is quite a bit of support against icon veneration for major theological figures (Augustine, Pope Gregory the Great, Origen, Eusebius).
So given that how could we reasonable argue this council is looking to a taught tradition of the Apostles if these great Christian thinkers seemed unaware?
The logical conclusion is it wasn't something that was found in the early church (at least wide spread) and Nicaea 2 declared by infallible men in much the same manner the Pharisees forced their commandments on the Jews.
And that's the problem. For every non-Scriptural tradition you introduce, there will be another ecclesial group who holds a different view (Pope/Mary/number of Ecumenical Councils, etc). You're left in a circular argument of declaring something to be true because you say it's true.
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I have said this before, but I think it holds here: there is a danger in making the Bible itself an idol.
This is a common claim. there are certainly "bible only" groups that exist, but I'm not sure many of those people are on this forum.
Instead, holding that the Scripture is the "norms the norms" simple holds that there are good traditions of man that we can follow if we want. As long as they are not opposed in Scripture they are fine. If they are opposed, we should reject them.
Which is my point. Nicaea 2 goes too far. It's clearly a political council called to rebut other councils. I can agree that iconoclasm is bad without affirming the kind of veneration found in Nicaea 2 is good.