Why does the Catholic Church refer to the Pope as the "Holy Father"?

7,794 Views | 113 Replies | Last: 1 yr ago by Rongagin71
Dies Irae
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M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

So who else besides Zobel think's it's good to refer to the Pope as the "Holy Father"?


I do


So you assign the honor that Jesus gave to God the Father to the Pope. Amazing.


No, the Pope is our spiritual Father. He is the Vicar of Christ on Earth, charge with shepherding Christ's flock in His earthly absence. What part of this is difficult for you?

It sounds great but it's nowhere in the Bible.


Its literally in the Gospel of John, chapter 21
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

So who else besides Zobel think's it's good to refer to the Pope as the "Holy Father"?


I do


So you assign the honor that Jesus gave to God the Father to the Pope. Amazing.


No, the Pope is our spiritual Father. He is the Vicar of Christ on Earth, charge with shepherding Christ's flock in His earthly absence. What part of this is difficult for you?

It sounds great but it's nowhere in the Bible.


Its literally in the Gospel of John, chapter 21

No it's not.
Dies Irae
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M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

So who else besides Zobel think's it's good to refer to the Pope as the "Holy Father"?


I do


So you assign the honor that Jesus gave to God the Father to the Pope. Amazing.


No, the Pope is our spiritual Father. He is the Vicar of Christ on Earth, charge with shepherding Christ's flock in His earthly absence. What part of this is difficult for you?

It sounds great but it's nowhere in the Bible.


Its literally in the Gospel of John, chapter 21

No it's not.


How do you expect anyone to take you seriously when you comport yourself this way? You rattle off as if you expect people to take your musings over the combined weight of the Church fathers and centuries of Tradition.

You are the perfect example for why Christ gave humanity a Church before he gave them a Bible. If all you have is your own personal interpretation, bereft of the Magisterium, you come up with things like "you can't call anyone Father" or "sulphur is a Satanic cleansing medium"

Faithful Ag
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No. No you have not provided scriptural support. You provided a proof text Verse that you insist be interpreted strictly literally and then you pull a couple other random verses in an attempt to prop up your position. This is not scriptural support.


Two can play that game…do you hate your mother and male sperm donor (I call mine my father but I am trying not to offend you here).
As Jesus "commands" us in Luke 14:26 (YLT)…

'If any one doth come unto me, and doth not hate his own father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brothers, and sisters, and yet even his own life, he is not able to be my disciple'
AgLiving06
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M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

I think this is worth a response to.

When thinking about egos, which we all have, my question is this.

Zobel submits to a historical Christian tradition, that he believes is the best understanding of God. I may not always agree with him on things, but we are able to look at his tradition and see the centuries of development and understanding of the Scriptures, not just from a single translation, but from people who truly spent their lives trying to understand a small piece of God.

From what I can tell, you submit to no tradition, and truly take a "me and my bible" approach. If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
Faithful Ag
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M1Buckeye said:



Bad translations lead to Bibles contradicting themselves and then to the teachings of false doctrines.



I think this is what lies at the heart of your issues and highlights where you get it fundamentally wrong, M1. Jesus Christ did not directly leave us a book requiring perfect translation. Jesus Christ left us His Church and sent the Holy Ghost to guide and protect His Church. Period. Full stop.

It is NOT bad translations or Bibles contradicting themselves that lead to "false doctrines". It is people like you trying to make the Bible be something it was never intended to be, and function in a way impossible for it to function. It is through Christ's visible church full of fallible men and guided by the Holy Ghost that we even have the scriptures, that we can know what IS scripture, and that we can properly interpret and understand the meaning of what is scripture.

Your precious YLT translation is not the end all be all. Sorry to burst your bubble. It is the meaning conveyed by the scriptures about the faith that matters. God does not expect his flock to be full of scholars, theologians, and individuals capable of reading and conjugating Greek, Latin, and Hebrew texts and then translating them perfectly into the vernacular language.

Your tradition of Biblical fundamentalism is completely foreign to Christianity as practiced for more than 1500 years. It is you who have the burden of proof here not the Apostolic Church, and unfortunately for you it is an impossible task.

ETA: False doctrine comes from bad interpretation made even worse because you are attempting to interpret the scriptures apart from the apostolic church and her historical understandings and traditions. We call them the Church FATHERS for a reason.
Dies Irae
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I have never understood the position that the Holy Spirit would intervene and guide the Church in separating the books of the Bible from the rest of the letters and epistles that didn't make it in, and then would depart and let the highly allegorical, chock full of parable, easily misinterpret-able work be interpreted a zillion different ways.
CrackerJackAg
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AG
M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.


M1Buckeye is one of the worst/annoying posters in this board. You know better than to argue with him Zobel.
AgLiving06
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There's one last point I want to make.

M1Buckeye makes an incorrect assumption about many of this forum that is worth correcting.

While many on this forum may utilize well-regarded English translations (NKJV, ESV, NASB), the core doctrines are not based on translations, but on the original texts and languages. Someone like M1Buckeye is actually at a disadvantage because he relies on translations to form his belief.

Most modern Christian denominations (Roman Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Lutheran, Anglican, etc) also train their new Pastors and Theologians in the original languages so they can see the original wording.

So us utilizing translations has absolutely no bearing on the core doctrines, which are all based in the original languages.
Sapper Redux
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The originals used are themselves translations or copies.
M1Buckeye
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AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
I can recognize contradictions in certain English translations. Please help me to resolve this contradiction. Which verse from The New Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition is correct and which is incorrect?

Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.
M1Buckeye
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Sapper Redux said:

The originals used are themselves translations or copies.
That's true. Bad translations lead to contradictions and false doctrines, such as eternal conscience torment. So why hasn't the all-knowing Catholic Church corrected that heresy?
M1Buckeye
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AgLiving06 said:


Most modern Christian denominations (Roman Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Lutheran, Anglican, etc) also train their new Pastors and Theologians in the original languages so they can see the original wording.
Then why haven't they spoken out against and corrected this contradiction?


Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

I have never understood the position that the Holy Spirit would intervene and guide the Church in separating the books of the Bible from the rest of the letters and epistles that didn't make it in, and then would depart and let the highly allegorical, chock full of parable, easily misinterpret-able work be interpreted a zillion different ways.
None of this is a surprise to God. He permits it, for the time being. God gave us his word. Thererafter, man either accidentally or intentionally changed some of the original scriptures which led to false doctrines and many divisions within Jesus's church. I believe the lesson is that we are LOST without God.
M1Buckeye
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Faithful Ag said:

M1Buckeye said:



Bad translations lead to Bibles contradicting themselves and then to the teachings of false doctrines.



ETA: False doctrine comes from bad interpretation made even worse because you are attempting to interpret the scriptures apart from the apostolic church and her historical understandings and traditions. We call them the Church FATHERS for a reason.
Again, why hasn't the Catholic Church, with its army of scholars, not corrected this OBVIOUS contradiction?
M1Buckeye
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Faithful Ag said:

M1Buckeye said:



Bad translations lead to Bibles contradicting themselves and then to the teachings of false doctrines.



I think this is what lies at the heart of your issues and highlights where you get it fundamentally wrong, M1. Jesus Christ did not directly leave us a book requiring perfect translation. Jesus Christ left us His Church and sent the Holy Ghost to guide and protect His Church. Period. Full stop.
I'm sorry to disagree with you, my brother. Paul tells us that scripture is from God and that we can use it to compare to doctrines being taught by man in order to know if that doctrine is consistent with God'sword.

1 Timothy 3:16-17
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God[a] may be complete, equipped for every good work.
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

So who else besides Zobel think's it's good to refer to the Pope as the "Holy Father"?


I do


So you assign the honor that Jesus gave to God the Father to the Pope. Amazing.


No, the Pope is our spiritual Father. He is the Vicar of Christ on Earth, charge with shepherding Christ's flock in His earthly absence. What part of this is difficult for you?

It sounds great but it's nowhere in the Bible.


Its literally in the Gospel of John, chapter 21

Verse and Bible translation, please.
AgLiving06
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M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
I can recognize contradictions in certain English translations. Please help me to resolve this contradiction. Which verse from The New Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition is correct and which is incorrect?

Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.

It's not a contradiction of English translations. It's user error and one of the multitude of reasons nobody should be "me and my bible."

As I pointed out the last time you brought 1 Timothy 4:10 up, you are misunderstanding and misapplying the Scripture by ignoring all of the context of 1 Timothy 4.

As a reminder, 1 Timothy 4 notes that:

"4 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by devoting themselves to deceitful spirits and teachings of demons..."

Paul takes it for granted, that just as in Matthew, men will fall away from the faith and follow demons and spirits. He then transitions from that into talking about what good servants of Jesus should do and why they should do it.

It's also not a contradiction to say that God is the Savior of all, but that many will choose to reject God. This of course has all been discussed previously.


AgLiving06
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Sapper Redux said:

The originals used are themselves translations or copies.

That's a bit of a red herring for this discussion.
M1Buckeye
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AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
I can recognize contradictions in certain English translations. Please help me to resolve this contradiction. Which verse from The New Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition is correct and which is incorrect?

Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.

It's not a contradiction of English translations. It's user error and one of the multitude of reasons nobody should be "me and my bible."

As I pointed out the last time you brought 1 Timothy 4:10 up, you are misunderstanding and misapplying the Scripture by ignoring all of the context of 1 Timothy 4.

As a reminder, 1 Timothy 4 notes that:

"4 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by devoting themselves to deceitful spirits and teachings of demons..."

Paul takes it for granted, that just as in Matthew, men will fall away from the faith and follow demons and spirits. He then transitions from that into talking about what good servants of Jesus should do and why they should do it.

It's also not a contradiction to say that God is the Savior of all, but that many will choose to reject God. This of course has all been discussed previously.




1 Timothy 4:10 is very plain, simple, and clear. Jesus is the savior of ALL people.

Do you not believe that?

Jesus himself said he doesn't stop looking until he has saved ALL!

Matthew 18:10-14 esv
See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven.[a] 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray? 13 And if he finds it, truly, I say to you, he rejoices over it more than over the ninety-nine that never went astray. 14 So it is not the will of my[b] Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.

M1Buckeye
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AgLiving06 said:

Sapper Redux said:

The originals used are themselves translations or copies.

That's a bit of a red herring for this discussion.
It's a fact. And that's why we need to diligently examine the contents of various Bible translations to discover which are most accurate. Most English translations are very poor translations as evidenced NOT by my understanding of Greek (which is none) but by the obvious contradictions that those poor translations produce.
M1Buckeye
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So it begs the question, why hasn't the Pope and his army of scholars, corrected the heresy of eternal conscious torment (ECT)? That false doctrine contradicts a plethora of scripture, so why hasn't the church corrected it? Again, this is why we need the original scriptures (accurately translated) in order to know which doctrines are from God and which are not.

2 Timothy 3:16-17
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God[a] may be complete, equipped for every good work.
Dies Irae
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M1Buckeye said:

So it begs the question, why hasn't the Pope and his army of scholars, corrected the heresy of eternal conscious torment (ECT)? That false doctrine contradicts a plethora of scripture, so why hasn't the church corrected it? Again, this is why we need the original scriptures (accurately translated) in order to know which doctrines are from God and which are not.

2 Timothy 3:16-17
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God[a] may be complete, equipped for every good work.


Because it isn't false. I've asked you again. It says Judas is the son of perdition and it would have been better if he had not been born. What does that mean?
AgLiving06
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M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

Sapper Redux said:

The originals used are themselves translations or copies.

That's a bit of a red herring for this discussion.
It's a fact. And that's why we need to diligently examine the contents of various Bible translations to discover which are most accurate. Most English translations are very poor translations as evidenced NOT by my understanding of Greek (which is none) but by the obvious contradictions that those poor translations produce.

No..you're misunderstanding this as well.

He's saying that even the oldest scrolls that have ever been found, that were used in the YLT are only copies.

It's his way of saying that maybe we don't actually know what was originally written down.
AgLiving06
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M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
I can recognize contradictions in certain English translations. Please help me to resolve this contradiction. Which verse from The New Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition is correct and which is incorrect?

Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.

It's not a contradiction of English translations. It's user error and one of the multitude of reasons nobody should be "me and my bible."

As I pointed out the last time you brought 1 Timothy 4:10 up, you are misunderstanding and misapplying the Scripture by ignoring all of the context of 1 Timothy 4.

As a reminder, 1 Timothy 4 notes that:

"4 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by devoting themselves to deceitful spirits and teachings of demons..."

Paul takes it for granted, that just as in Matthew, men will fall away from the faith and follow demons and spirits. He then transitions from that into talking about what good servants of Jesus should do and why they should do it.

It's also not a contradiction to say that God is the Savior of all, but that many will choose to reject God. This of course has all been discussed previously.




1 Timothy 4:10 is very plain, simple, and clear. Jesus is the savior of ALL people.

Do you not believe that?

Jesus himself said he doesn't stop looking until he has saved ALL!

Matthew 18:10-14 esv
See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven.[a] 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray? 13 And if he finds it, truly, I say to you, he rejoices over it more than over the ninety-nine that never went astray. 14 So it is not the will of my[b] Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.



Unlike you, I don't prooftext things out of context. I read all of 1 Timothy 4 to understand the verses, not cherry pick verses as you are doing.
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

So it begs the question, why hasn't the Pope and his army of scholars, corrected the heresy of eternal conscious torment (ECT)? That false doctrine contradicts a plethora of scripture, so why hasn't the church corrected it? Again, this is why we need the original scriptures (accurately translated) in order to know which doctrines are from God and which are not.

2 Timothy 3:16-17
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God[a] may be complete, equipped for every good work.


Because it isn't false. I've asked you again. It says Judas is the son of perdition and it would have been better if he had not been born. What does that mean?
Verse and translation, please?
M1Buckeye
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AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
I can recognize contradictions in certain English translations. Please help me to resolve this contradiction. Which verse from The New Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition is correct and which is incorrect?

Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.

It's not a contradiction of English translations. It's user error and one of the multitude of reasons nobody should be "me and my bible."

As I pointed out the last time you brought 1 Timothy 4:10 up, you are misunderstanding and misapplying the Scripture by ignoring all of the context of 1 Timothy 4.

As a reminder, 1 Timothy 4 notes that:

"4 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by devoting themselves to deceitful spirits and teachings of demons..."

Paul takes it for granted, that just as in Matthew, men will fall away from the faith and follow demons and spirits. He then transitions from that into talking about what good servants of Jesus should do and why they should do it.

It's also not a contradiction to say that God is the Savior of all, but that many will choose to reject God. This of course has all been discussed previously.




1 Timothy 4:10 is very plain, simple, and clear. Jesus is the savior of ALL people.

Do you not believe that?

Jesus himself said he doesn't stop looking until he has saved ALL!

Matthew 18:10-14 esv
See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven.[a] 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray? 13 And if he finds it, truly, I say to you, he rejoices over it more than over the ninety-nine that never went astray. 14 So it is not the will of my[b] Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.



Unlike you, I don't prooftext things out of context. I read all of 1 Timothy 4 to understand the verses, not cherry pick verses as you are doing.

Your belief that Jesus sends people to suffer FOREVER is contrary to the scriptures and it is most definitely contrary to God's will.
Dies Irae
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The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below
I like the ESV for its ease of reading but I refer to better translations that aren't necessarily "easy on the eyes" when it comes to other verses, particularly those that say things like "forever", "eternal" and "everlasting".
Dies Irae
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M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below
I like the ESV for its ease of reading but I refer to better translations that aren't necessarily "easy on the eyes" when it comes to other verses, particularly those that say things like "forever", "eternal" and "everlasting".


This one says that it was better that he was never born. Explain what that means.
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below

That's a good question. Please let me research it further and get back to you.
M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below
I like the ESV for its ease of reading but I refer to better translations that aren't necessarily "easy on the eyes" when it comes to other verses, particularly those that say things like "forever", "eternal" and "everlasting".


This one says that it was better that he was never born. Explain what that means.
Is it possible that Jesus was speaking metaphorically and not literally?

I copied this from another site:

Of course, as we might expect, it wasn't meant to be literal, as though there were some objective weighing of Judas' life proving things would have been better had he not been born. Keener's Matthew commentary [626] notes that cursing one's own birth, or that of others, was a common metaphorical lament used for or by someone experiencing great distress or woe, both in Jewish and pagan literature (see for example Job 3:3-26). There is even a rabbinic saying that anyone whose first words upon waking are not from the Torah is better off not having been born. Obviously this concept had the status of a metaphor to indicate the experience of something tragic or awful, or else to pronounce judgment. Even to this day we use the same metaphor; Napoleon reportedly said, for example, "Better not to have been born than to live without glory."

Dies Irae
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M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below
I like the ESV for its ease of reading but I refer to better translations that aren't necessarily "easy on the eyes" when it comes to other verses, particularly those that say things like "forever", "eternal" and "everlasting".


This one says that it was better that he was never born. Explain what that means.
Is it possible that Jesus was speaking metaphorically and not literally?

I copied this from another site:

Of course, as we might expect, it wasn't meant to be literal, as though there were some objective weighing of Judas' life proving things would have been better had he not been born. Keener's Matthew commentary [626] notes that cursing one's own birth, or that of others, was a common metaphorical lament used for or by someone experiencing great distress or woe, both in Jewish and pagan literature (see for example Job 3:3-26). There is even a rabbinic saying that anyone whose first words upon waking are not from the Torah is better off not having been born. Obviously this concept had the status of a metaphor to indicate the experience of something tragic or awful, or else to pronounce judgment. Even to this day we use the same metaphor; Napoleon reportedly said, for example, "Better not to have been born than to live without glory."




When Jesus spoke in Metaphor, he let people know. He also refers to Judas as the "son of perdition" or in the ESV translation "son of destruction" and says that he has been "lost"


M1Buckeye
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Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

M1Buckeye said:

Dies Irae said:

The ESV is the one you like correct? I've never heard of it, but see below
I like the ESV for its ease of reading but I refer to better translations that aren't necessarily "easy on the eyes" when it comes to other verses, particularly those that say things like "forever", "eternal" and "everlasting".


This one says that it was better that he was never born. Explain what that means.
Is it possible that Jesus was speaking metaphorically and not literally?

I copied this from another site:

Of course, as we might expect, it wasn't meant to be literal, as though there were some objective weighing of Judas' life proving things would have been better had he not been born. Keener's Matthew commentary [626] notes that cursing one's own birth, or that of others, was a common metaphorical lament used for or by someone experiencing great distress or woe, both in Jewish and pagan literature (see for example Job 3:3-26). There is even a rabbinic saying that anyone whose first words upon waking are not from the Torah is better off not having been born. Obviously this concept had the status of a metaphor to indicate the experience of something tragic or awful, or else to pronounce judgment. Even to this day we use the same metaphor; Napoleon reportedly said, for example, "Better not to have been born than to live without glory."




When Jesus spoke in Metaphor, he let people know. He also refers to Judas as the "son of perdition" or in the ESV translation "son of destruction" and says that he has been "lost"




Thank you for your scriptural responses. I love it!

We know that Judas felt extreme remorse over his sinful choice to betray Jesus, so much so that he discarded the silver and killed himself. Doesn't it seem that Judas was expressing his sorrow and regret and that Jesus would forgive him?

My interpretation is that Jesus was indirectly warning Judas that he would deeply regret betraying him. Jesus, being God, knew in advance that Judas would fall into temptation and would betray Jesus. Perhaps that's why Jesus chose him.

We also know that the only "unforgivable" sin is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit. So what that tells us is that Judas' betrayal was not an unforgivable sin.

This is my understanding but I will continue to research it because, like you, I want to know and share the truth.
AgLiving06
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M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

AgLiving06 said:

M1Buckeye said:

Zobel said:

And people endeavoring to correct the world based on their limited understanding of Greek leads to all sorts of opposite errors.

As long as you submit to no one - against the scriptures - and insist on using your own and only your own unique understanding of the scriptures - also against the scriptures - there's no point in discussion.


Your Himalayan ego precludes you from acknowledging when you're wrong which, by the way, is often. And when you're proven to be wrong you spew some nonsense and then hide under your bed.

If we take you at your word, you believe you have a greater understanding of the Scriptures than basically every other Christian who has walked this world. As far as I know, you aren't fluent in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic, yet you have gleaned information that scholars have all missed.

So I'm left asking...who has the bigger ego?
I can recognize contradictions in certain English translations. Please help me to resolve this contradiction. Which verse from The New Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition is correct and which is incorrect?

Matthew 25:46
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.

1 Timothy 4:10
For to this end we toil and struggle because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL PEOPLE, especially of those who believe.

It's not a contradiction of English translations. It's user error and one of the multitude of reasons nobody should be "me and my bible."

As I pointed out the last time you brought 1 Timothy 4:10 up, you are misunderstanding and misapplying the Scripture by ignoring all of the context of 1 Timothy 4.

As a reminder, 1 Timothy 4 notes that:

"4 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by devoting themselves to deceitful spirits and teachings of demons..."

Paul takes it for granted, that just as in Matthew, men will fall away from the faith and follow demons and spirits. He then transitions from that into talking about what good servants of Jesus should do and why they should do it.

It's also not a contradiction to say that God is the Savior of all, but that many will choose to reject God. This of course has all been discussed previously.




1 Timothy 4:10 is very plain, simple, and clear. Jesus is the savior of ALL people.

Do you not believe that?

Jesus himself said he doesn't stop looking until he has saved ALL!

Matthew 18:10-14 esv
See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven.[a] 12 What do you think? If a man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go in search of the one that went astray? 13 And if he finds it, truly, I say to you, he rejoices over it more than over the ninety-nine that never went astray. 14 So it is not the will of my[b] Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.



Unlike you, I don't prooftext things out of context. I read all of 1 Timothy 4 to understand the verses, not cherry pick verses as you are doing.

Your belief that Jesus sends people to suffer FOREVER is contrary to the scriptures and it is most definitely contrary to God's will.

As on the other thread, this is still a blatant lie.

I go as far as Scripture goes and as 1 Timothy 4 says, men will fall away from the faith and follow demons. We don't know what awaits them, but we have zero reason to believe they will eventually follow Jesus.
 
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