Where did Jesus get his inspiration for the sermon on the mount?

13,910 Views | 217 Replies | Last: 1 yr ago by codker92
AgLiving06
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codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.
NCNJ1217
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Notice he didn't dispute that the entire thread is moot.
codker92
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AG
NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking


That has nothing to do with this thread. Jesus as the Son of Man is distinct from the Ancient of Days in the Daniel passage. Son of Man is subordinate to Ancient of Days.
codker92
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AG
BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.
Having inspiration from God doesn't make Jesus God. Daniel received special inspiration from God, including information no one else knew, but that did not make him God. The only person who decides who God is, is Yahweh Elohim. Jesus is required to read scripture, because he is the king of Israel. The throne of Israel comes with obligations, these obligations are imposed by Yahweh Elohim. Actually, Jesus was literally called the king of Israel in the passage I cited, which occurred 2000 years ago. The political rule of Jesus was actually more than 2000 years ago.

Jesus is the Angel of the Lord in the OT, if you follow the two powers theology and the Metatron tradition. The Angel of the Lord was God's representative on earth, and for all intents and purposes held God's authority. He appeared to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, etc. He is all throughout the OT.



So have we finally pivoted from the scripture reading nonsense to a debate about the Godness of Jesus? Because I'm pretty sure everyone you are debating with believes Jesus is God. So you are not going to get very far on that one.

A group of people in the streets called him King. I am pretty sure that isn't sufficient to become
king. In fact, historically there were a number of false messiahs. I'm guessing there were plenty of precessions where the people in Jerusalem declared someone King of the Jews.

You quoted Isaiah earlier.

For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us;
And the government will rest on His shoulders;
And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.
There will be no end to the increase of His government or of peace,
On the throne of David and over his kingdom,
To establish it and to uphold it with justice and righteousness
From then on and forevermore.
The zeal of the LORD of hosts will accomplish this. Isaiah 9:6-7

So when in his mortal ministry did Jesus sit on the throne of David (from then on and forevermore)?

As for your scriptural reading requirement of Kings of Israel, it says when the king sits on the throne. When did Jesus sit on the throne?

But ok, now you have pivoted to Jesus's political rule was as "The Angel of the Lord". Pretty sure the passage about kings reading scripture didn't say "The Angel of the Lord" has to read the scripture.
I would like to point out that I never actually specified that Jesus read the scripture during his earthly ministry, I simply said that he read the scripture. I have an argument showing that jesus did read scripture during his earthly ministry, but it will take a while to type out so I will post later. For now the following will suffice.

If anything, Jesus read scripture in heaven before he came to earth. The idea of the pre-existence of souls in the OT supports this. Jesus' knowledge of scripture came from reading the scripture while he was in heaven. Here is the passage showing Jesus receiving thrones, one of which is the throne of david.

The throne of David was held by God after the destruction of Israel... Daniel 7:9,13-14.

9 I continued watching until thrones were placed and an Ancient of Days sat; his clothing was white like snow and the hair of his head was like pure wool and his throne was a flame of fire and its wheels were burning fire.


13 I continued watching in the visions of the night, and look, with the clouds of heaven one like a son of man was coming, and he came to the Ancient of Days, and was presented before him. 14 And to him was given dominion and glory and kingship that all the peoples, the nations, and languages would serve him; his dominion is a dominion without end that will not cease, and his kingdom is one that will not be destroyed.





Yeah, all the "read books like a normal person" didn't mean during his earthly ministry. You really meant while he was in heaven before his earthly ministry, because that is when a "normal person" reads scripture.

How does that even make sense with your passage of writing a copy of scriptures that is approved by the priests. Prior to Christ's sacrifice, the gates of heaven were locked. How did the priests get to heaven to approve Jesus's copy of the scripture that he was supposedly reading every day?


Jesus earthly ministry is just a speck compared to what he was doing in the OT. In the Daniel passage I cited he is literally described as a man the Son of Man. He submitted to the Ancient Days and took the throne of David where he read scripture.
codker92
How long do you want to ignore this user?
AG
NCNJ1217 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Notice he didn't dispute that the entire thread is moot.


Update, I did.
codker92
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?
codker92
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AG
BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...

codker92
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AG
BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.
Having inspiration from God doesn't make Jesus God. Daniel received special inspiration from God, including information no one else knew, but that did not make him God. The only person who decides who God is, is Yahweh Elohim. Jesus is required to read scripture, because he is the king of Israel. The throne of Israel comes with obligations, these obligations are imposed by Yahweh Elohim. Actually, Jesus was literally called the king of Israel in the passage I cited, which occurred 2000 years ago. The political rule of Jesus was actually more than 2000 years ago.

Jesus is the Angel of the Lord in the OT, if you follow the two powers theology and the Metatron tradition. The Angel of the Lord was God's representative on earth, and for all intents and purposes held God's authority. He appeared to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, etc. He is all throughout the OT.



So have we finally pivoted from the scripture reading nonsense to a debate about the Godness of Jesus? Because I'm pretty sure everyone you are debating with believes Jesus is God. So you are not going to get very far on that one.

A group of people in the streets called him King. I am pretty sure that isn't sufficient to become
king. In fact, historically there were a number of false messiahs. I'm guessing there were plenty of precessions where the people in Jerusalem declared someone King of the Jews.

You quoted Isaiah earlier.

For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us;
And the government will rest on His shoulders;
And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.
There will be no end to the increase of His government or of peace,
On the throne of David and over his kingdom,
To establish it and to uphold it with justice and righteousness
From then on and forevermore.
The zeal of the LORD of hosts will accomplish this. Isaiah 9:6-7

So when in his mortal ministry did Jesus sit on the throne of David (from then on and forevermore)?

As for your scriptural reading requirement of Kings of Israel, it says when the king sits on the throne. When did Jesus sit on the throne?

But ok, now you have pivoted to Jesus's political rule was as "The Angel of the Lord". Pretty sure the passage about kings reading scripture didn't say "The Angel of the Lord" has to read the scripture.
I would like to point out that I never actually specified that Jesus read the scripture during his earthly ministry, I simply said that he read the scripture. I have an argument showing that jesus did read scripture during his earthly ministry, but it will take a while to type out so I will post later. For now the following will suffice.

If anything, Jesus read scripture in heaven before he came to earth. The idea of the pre-existence of souls in the OT supports this. Jesus' knowledge of scripture came from reading the scripture while he was in heaven. Here is the passage showing Jesus receiving thrones, one of which is the throne of david.

The throne of David was held by God after the destruction of Israel... Daniel 7:9,13-14.

9 I continued watching until thrones were placed and an Ancient of Days sat; his clothing was white like snow and the hair of his head was like pure wool and his throne was a flame of fire and its wheels were burning fire.


13 I continued watching in the visions of the night, and look, with the clouds of heaven one like a son of man was coming, and he came to the Ancient of Days, and was presented before him. 14 And to him was given dominion and glory and kingship that all the peoples, the nations, and languages would serve him; his dominion is a dominion without end that will not cease, and his kingdom is one that will not be destroyed.





Yeah, all the "read books like a normal person" didn't mean during his earthly ministry. You really meant while he was in heaven before his earthly ministry, because that is when a "normal person" reads scripture.

How does that even make sense with your passage of writing a copy of scriptures that is approved by the priests. Prior to Christ's sacrifice, the gates of heaven were locked. How did the priests get to heaven to approve Jesus's copy of the scripture that he was supposedly reading every day?

Well technically if you read the book of Daniel Jesus was in the fire with Daniel so he did have an earthly ministry in the OT, and when he was not on the earth he was on his throne reading scripture.

AgLiving06
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codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
NCNJ1217
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AG
At this point it's just funny
BiochemAg97
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AG
codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.
BiochemAg97
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AG
codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.
Having inspiration from God doesn't make Jesus God. Daniel received special inspiration from God, including information no one else knew, but that did not make him God. The only person who decides who God is, is Yahweh Elohim. Jesus is required to read scripture, because he is the king of Israel. The throne of Israel comes with obligations, these obligations are imposed by Yahweh Elohim. Actually, Jesus was literally called the king of Israel in the passage I cited, which occurred 2000 years ago. The political rule of Jesus was actually more than 2000 years ago.

Jesus is the Angel of the Lord in the OT, if you follow the two powers theology and the Metatron tradition. The Angel of the Lord was God's representative on earth, and for all intents and purposes held God's authority. He appeared to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, etc. He is all throughout the OT.



So have we finally pivoted from the scripture reading nonsense to a debate about the Godness of Jesus? Because I'm pretty sure everyone you are debating with believes Jesus is God. So you are not going to get very far on that one.

A group of people in the streets called him King. I am pretty sure that isn't sufficient to become
king. In fact, historically there were a number of false messiahs. I'm guessing there were plenty of precessions where the people in Jerusalem declared someone King of the Jews.

You quoted Isaiah earlier.

For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us;
And the government will rest on His shoulders;
And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.
There will be no end to the increase of His government or of peace,
On the throne of David and over his kingdom,
To establish it and to uphold it with justice and righteousness
From then on and forevermore.
The zeal of the LORD of hosts will accomplish this. Isaiah 9:6-7

So when in his mortal ministry did Jesus sit on the throne of David (from then on and forevermore)?

As for your scriptural reading requirement of Kings of Israel, it says when the king sits on the throne. When did Jesus sit on the throne?

But ok, now you have pivoted to Jesus's political rule was as "The Angel of the Lord". Pretty sure the passage about kings reading scripture didn't say "The Angel of the Lord" has to read the scripture.
I would like to point out that I never actually specified that Jesus read the scripture during his earthly ministry, I simply said that he read the scripture. I have an argument showing that jesus did read scripture during his earthly ministry, but it will take a while to type out so I will post later. For now the following will suffice.

If anything, Jesus read scripture in heaven before he came to earth. The idea of the pre-existence of souls in the OT supports this. Jesus' knowledge of scripture came from reading the scripture while he was in heaven. Here is the passage showing Jesus receiving thrones, one of which is the throne of david.

The throne of David was held by God after the destruction of Israel... Daniel 7:9,13-14.

9 I continued watching until thrones were placed and an Ancient of Days sat; his clothing was white like snow and the hair of his head was like pure wool and his throne was a flame of fire and its wheels were burning fire.


13 I continued watching in the visions of the night, and look, with the clouds of heaven one like a son of man was coming, and he came to the Ancient of Days, and was presented before him. 14 And to him was given dominion and glory and kingship that all the peoples, the nations, and languages would serve him; his dominion is a dominion without end that will not cease, and his kingdom is one that will not be destroyed.





Yeah, all the "read books like a normal person" didn't mean during his earthly ministry. You really meant while he was in heaven before his earthly ministry, because that is when a "normal person" reads scripture.

How does that even make sense with your passage of writing a copy of scriptures that is approved by the priests. Prior to Christ's sacrifice, the gates of heaven were locked. How did the priests get to heaven to approve Jesus's copy of the scripture that he was supposedly reading every day?

Well technically if you read the book of Daniel Jesus was in the fire with Daniel so he did have an earthly ministry in the OT, and when he was not on the earth he was on his throne reading scripture.




Nice attempt at deflection. How can Jesus in Heaven follow the dictates of having the priest approve the copy of the scripture he wrote in heaven so he can read it every day. Or does only part of the passage that you can use to support your argument matter?


Because Jesus is the Word, His existence is in effect reading and writing scripture. But I don't think that matches your passage about the king needing to read daily. And I don't think that says anything about reading whatever it is that you seem to believe is the basis for the sermon on the mount. By moving the goal posts all over the place, you have wandered far away from your original thesis. I'm curious how you plan on getting back.
BiochemAg97
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AG
codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




It is interesting that instead of the message of God knowing each of us and forgiveness, you have taken the Samaritan woman at the well from John to be an allegory of Jesus reuniting Israel. Why does that story appear in John instead of say Matthew or Mark which were clearly written for a Jewish audience. Wouldn't such an allegory be lost or irrelevant to a Johannine community that included gentiles and Jewish-Christians expelled from the synagogue due to their "heretical belief" that Jesus was the Messiah. Certainly doesn't seem like a story of reuniting Israel would have a lot of meaning for a group that was basically isolated from the rest of society. I don't know.

I still think the God knows us and forgives our sins is a pretty important message. It is also the message the woman took to tell the towns people.
Catag94
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AG
codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking


That has nothing to do with this thread. Jesus as the Son of Man is distinct from the Ancient of Days in the Daniel passage. Son of Man is subordinate to Ancient of Days.


How do you reconcile "the Son of Man (Jesus) being subordinate to the Ancient of Days with Mat. 28:18?
Do you in fact deny Jesus as the Messiah?

Do you acknowledge the connections of the OT and NT regarding Jesus, the Messiah? Examples being: Psalm 110:4 and Hebrews 5 and 7 referring to Jesus as Priest forever?
Loyalty
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To the OP - I would ask that you sincerely read and consider the following from the inerrant Word of God. It's the only real answer and truth you need to believe.

John 3:16
Romans 3:23
Romans 6:23
1 Peter 2:24
1John 1:12

Admit you're a sinner.

Ask forgiveness and be willing to turn away from your sins.

Believe that Christ died for you on the cross.

Receive Christ into your heart and life.

Romans 10:13 says, "Whoever calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved."

God bless you.








codker92
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AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
Ever think that maybe God is bigger than theology?
codker92
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BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. But they did not because God already made him king back in the Daniel passages The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.
BiochemAg97
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AG
codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.


NCNJ1217
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AG
codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
Ever think that maybe God is bigger than theology?
Are you God? No?

Ok. Theology is the study of God. So you (you, the poster) must have some kind of theology if you are trying to understand the nature of God.

In case it wasn't clear, Sure, God is bigger than theology but that's irrelevant since none of us on this thread are actually God.

So, yet again, another irrelevant post from you (although what your point is, I don't think anyone knows).
codker92
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AG
BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.



You did not address my point about the War Scroll and Temple Scroll. Essenes held that scripture did not support animal sacrifices...

Actually Essenes found it unlawful to make sacrifices of animals, reagardless of whether the temple existed or not.
codker92
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Loyalty said:

To the OP - I would ask that you sincerely read and consider the following from the inerrant Word of God. It's the only real answer and truth you need to believe.

John 3:16
Romans 3:23
Romans 6:23
1 Peter 2:24
1John 1:12

Admit you're a sinner.

Ask forgiveness and be willing to turn away from your sins.

Believe that Christ died for you on the cross.

Receive Christ into your heart and life.

Romans 10:13 says, "Whoever calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved."

God bless you.









Cliche old altar call much?

The name of the Lord is a literal person in the OT. Calling on the name of the Lord isn't reciting a magic spell or saying a prayer. Its asking for a literal divine intervention.

Admit you are a sinner and show me where Moses called on Jesus' name. Moses appeared glorified with Jesus in the NT. Where anywhere does Moses use the word "Jesus"?
BiochemAg97
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codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.



You did not address my point about the War Scroll and Temple Scroll. Essenes held that scripture did not support animal sacrifices...

Actually Essenes found it unlawful to make sacrifices of animals, reagardless of whether the temple existed or not.


Oh, sorry. I'm not familiar with the war scroll and the temple scroll. Which part of the Torah is the war scroll and the temple scroll? You said they strictly followed the Torah. Are you now saying that they had additionally scripture used to basically ignore parts of the Torah?
codker92
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AG
BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.



You did not address my point about the War Scroll and Temple Scroll. Essenes held that scripture did not support animal sacrifices...

Actually Essenes found it unlawful to make sacrifices of animals, reagardless of whether the temple existed or not.


Oh, sorry. I'm not familiar with the war scroll and the temple scroll. Which part of the Torah is the war scroll and the temple scroll? You said they strictly followed the Torah. Are you now saying that they had additionally scripture used to basically ignore parts of the Torah?
I think the fundamental disconnect is that you are following the tradition of the Pharisees who had a pretty loose interpretation of Torah and rejected large portions of scripture that the believing Jews held as inspired during Jesus' time. Jesus clearly read the War Scroll, Temple Scroll, and other second temple literature. The Pharisees and Sadducees did not.

Pliny the Elder (two Roman sources which you obviously hold in esteem) both documented extensively the fact that Essenes did not offer animal sacrifices.

The evidence shows Essenes may have refrained from offering animal sacrifices. For example, the Jewish philosopher Philo of Alexandria, who lived in the first century CE, wrote that the Essenes "do not offer animal sacrifices, considering them impure" (Quod Omnis Probus Liber Sit 12). Similarly, the Roman historian Pliny the Elder, writing in the first century CE, noted that the Essenes "reject pleasures as an evil, but esteem continence, the absence of all sensual gratification, and the renunciation of property, as the highest virtues. Nor do they offer sacrifices" (Natural History 5.73).

BluHorseShu
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
This thread is beginning to hurt my head. Is it just me, or is Codker really really good at positing the most random theological posts to see if anyone can understand what he is talking about? It would have been helpful from the get-go if he included why this important to consider this mercurial postulate
dermdoc
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AG
codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.



You did not address my point about the War Scroll and Temple Scroll. Essenes held that scripture did not support animal sacrifices...

Actually Essenes found it unlawful to make sacrifices of animals, reagardless of whether the temple existed or not.


Oh, sorry. I'm not familiar with the war scroll and the temple scroll. Which part of the Torah is the war scroll and the temple scroll? You said they strictly followed the Torah. Are you now saying that they had additionally scripture used to basically ignore parts of the Torah?
I think the fundamental disconnect is that you are following the tradition of the Pharisees who had a pretty loose interpretation of Torah and rejected large portions of scripture that the believing Jews held as inspired during Jesus' time. Jesus clearly read the War Scroll, Temple Scroll, and other second temple literature. The Pharisees and Sadducees did not.

Pliny the Elder (two Roman sources which you obviously hold in esteem) both documented extensively the fact that Essenes did not offer animal sacrifices.

The evidence shows Essenes may have refrained from offering animal sacrifices. For example, the Jewish philosopher Philo of Alexandria, who lived in the first century CE, wrote that the Essenes "do not offer animal sacrifices, considering them impure" (Quod Omnis Probus Liber Sit 12). Similarly, the Roman historian Pliny the Elder, writing in the first century CE, noted that the Essenes "reject pleasures as an evil, but esteem continence, the absence of all sensual gratification, and the renunciation of property, as the highest virtues. Nor do they offer sacrifices" (Natural History 5.73).




Can you give me the link saying Jesus read the War scroll, Temple scroll, and other second temple literature? I can not find it in the Scriptures.
Thanks.
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codker92
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AG
dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.



You did not address my point about the War Scroll and Temple Scroll. Essenes held that scripture did not support animal sacrifices...

Actually Essenes found it unlawful to make sacrifices of animals, reagardless of whether the temple existed or not.


Oh, sorry. I'm not familiar with the war scroll and the temple scroll. Which part of the Torah is the war scroll and the temple scroll? You said they strictly followed the Torah. Are you now saying that they had additionally scripture used to basically ignore parts of the Torah?
I think the fundamental disconnect is that you are following the tradition of the Pharisees who had a pretty loose interpretation of Torah and rejected large portions of scripture that the believing Jews held as inspired during Jesus' time. Jesus clearly read the War Scroll, Temple Scroll, and other second temple literature. The Pharisees and Sadducees did not.

Pliny the Elder (two Roman sources which you obviously hold in esteem) both documented extensively the fact that Essenes did not offer animal sacrifices.

The evidence shows Essenes may have refrained from offering animal sacrifices. For example, the Jewish philosopher Philo of Alexandria, who lived in the first century CE, wrote that the Essenes "do not offer animal sacrifices, considering them impure" (Quod Omnis Probus Liber Sit 12). Similarly, the Roman historian Pliny the Elder, writing in the first century CE, noted that the Essenes "reject pleasures as an evil, but esteem continence, the absence of all sensual gratification, and the renunciation of property, as the highest virtues. Nor do they offer sacrifices" (Natural History 5.73).




Can you give me the link saying Jesus read the War scroll, Temple scroll, and other second temple literature? I can not find it in the Scriptures.
Thanks.
Link is the new testament passage documenting Jesus' sermon on the mount where he preached the principles found in the War Scroll, Temple Scroll and other second temple literature.

I hold the Temples Scrolss,War Scroll etc are indeed inspired scriptures.
codker92
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AG
Catag94 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking


That has nothing to do with this thread. Jesus as the Son of Man is distinct from the Ancient of Days in the Daniel passage. Son of Man is subordinate to Ancient of Days.


How do you reconcile "the Son of Man (Jesus) being subordinate to the Ancient of Days with Mat. 28:18?
Do you in fact deny Jesus as the Messiah?

Do you acknowledge the connections of the OT and NT regarding Jesus, the Messiah? Examples being: Psalm 110:4 and Hebrews 5 and 7 referring to Jesus as Priest forever?
The question of whether Jesus is a messiah is irrelevant. The king of Persia was called messiah. So what?? I agree with the passages in Matthew, authority was GIVEN to Jesus, that is someone had to give it to him. Obviously this is ancient of days.
codker92
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AG
BluHorseShu said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
This thread is beginning to hurt my head. Is it just me, or is Codker really really good at positing the most random theological posts to see if anyone can understand what he is talking about? It would have been helpful from the get-go if he included why this important to consider this mercurial postulate
God commanded you to love him with all your heart soul and MIND. You should want to study these things dear Christian.
BluHorseShu
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AG
codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
This thread is beginning to hurt my head. Is it just me, or is Codker really really good at positing the most random theological posts to see if anyone can understand what he is talking about? It would have been helpful from the get-go if he included why this important to consider this mercurial postulate
God commanded you to love him with all your heart soul and MIND. You should want to study these things dear Christian.
Well apparently God didn't give me the same mind you have. I just work with what he gives me. But I make up for it with my love for Him.
BiochemAg97
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AG
codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

BiochemAg97 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

ramblin_ag02 said:

God did limit Himself by promising never to flood the Earth again. I don't know about all the swearing, but I think God can impose limitations on Himself

The very concept of Jesus as the God-Man is God limiting himself because if he weren't fully man, His sacrifice wouldn't have meant as much.
Kind of the whole point. If Jesus, as a man, on earth was completely omnipotent, then what did he really give up by becoming a man. Scripture is clear that we are not of the same substance when we are glorified. This is what Christ meant when he said that God does not put new wine into old wineskins...

I don't think anybody on here understands your point. That's a big part of the problem.

The Christian belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully Man.

So what did he give up? He took on humanity and all that comes with it. He felt hunger and tiredness and pain. He felt death.

The problem I see in your argument is you're reducing God to one or two things (omnipotence and probably omniscience). God in the Scriptures is so much more than that and in your reduction you lose that.


Key word "kind of" my point. Really what I find interesting is how, according to you, Jesus was instructing people in what you call the law using pseudepigraphal sources. However not all Jews considered those sources scripture…

EDIT: Really? Cmon, Really? Im the one suggesting Jesus read books like a normal person. The other posters are the ones insisting Jesus had all that info beamed into his head like in star trek.



Beamed into his head like Star Trek seems to miss the point, doesn't it. Inspiration from God is a little different than being God and therefor omniscient.

There are a number of times in scripture where Jesus knows things without being told. The Samaritan women at the well, for example. Clearly didn't get that information from reading books. So either Jesus was God and omniscient or Jesus was not God and relied on inspiration from God (Holy Spirit) similar to the prophets.

Regardless, there is scriptural evidence for Jesus having knowledge beyond a normal man, yet you want to dismiss that for some reason to insist he needed to study scripture and and a bunch of other religious texts to give a sermon.


Jesus definitely had knowledge beyond the church father because he read the pseudepigraphal sources which the church fathers did not have access to.


Sure. The pseudepigraphal sources just happened to include the life history of the woman at the well.

Instead of starting with your hypothesis and using it to explain everything else, you should listen to what others are saying and see that there is an alternate explanation. Could Jesus have read scripture? Maybe, the gospels don't really talk about Jesus studying scripture on his own but they also don't say he didn't. Did Jesus have to read scripture, or in particular the pseudepigrapha? No, there are other alternate explanations for how and why similar ideas are expressed in both Jesus's teachings and the pseudepigrapha.

And give up on relying on the instructions to a mortal king of Israel as applying to Jesus when he is on the political throne of Israel. Jesus didn't sit on the political throne of Israel while he was on earth 2000 years ago. That was one of the big challenges the Jews had with recognizing the messiah. They were expecting a messiah that would come save them from the Romans, not one that was there to save them from eternal death.

Rather the "political" rule of Jesus will be at the second coming. Maybe the Jesus as King has to read scripture will apply then, but since the second coming would be the fulfillment of scripture, the prior rules might not apply. After all, we are no longer called to sacrifice animals because Christ was the ultimate sacrificial lamb.

Does it matter to God's message contained in the Bible if Jesus literally and actually met with the samaritan Woman at the well in the John 5 passage? I say no. The important message God wanted to send to believers was not that God knew what this woman's story was. The important part the author of John was conveying was that the woman had five husbands, including her current one. This is because the author was making a point. The Samaritan woman is the passage symbolically represents the northern kingdom of Israel which was disinherited. The five husbands are the conequring nations who took her, namely Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Seleucids, and Hasmoneans. The current husband is Rome. It is significant that Jesu forgives the woman, because it signals to the audience that God is regrafting the new Israel onto Judah to form All Israel.

Honestly, it does not matter if Jesus is the messiah or not. The OT literally provides salvation through faith on its own by just believing in the Angel of the Lord. You keep saying the Jews missed the messiah. Jesus was a Jew and you are missing the passages of the NT where people called Jesus the king of Israel. Somehow, even after I have continually brought this to your attention, because you are not paying attention or because or your preconceived notions about Jews, you believe they killed Jesus. The Pharisees did not follow Torah, they violated Torah, and sold their people to the Romans and they sold their own culture for their own profit.

The "political rule" of Jesus was already established in the OT and it did not go away. God disinherited Israel, although he kept a righteous remnant in Judah. He used the Persians as his "political instrument" just as he uses the adversary as his personal prosecutor to carry out his plans. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative right leaning Jews did not sacrifice animals. Only the left leaning Sadducees and Pharisees did. The conservative right wing Jews, Essenes, and those who followed a strict reading of Torah did not sacrifice at the temple... I don't know why you keep acting like Jews are trying to bring back sacrifices. Even at the time of Jesus, the conservative jews did not do this...




Seems like you need to reread your OT. You claim the "conservative Jews" who did not sacrifice animals at the temple followed a strict reading of the Torah? How is that following Leviticus 1?

Animal sacrifice was happening in the temple at the time of Jesus. Do you somehow dispute that? Or are the Essenes the only Jews that count in your opinion?


Yes, I used Jews as a shorthand to reference various subsets of Jews. No I do not blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. But somehow a group of people proclaiming Jesus as King on Palm Sunday ended with a group of people wanting his crucified on Friday. Are you claiming that the Sunday group had the authority to make Jesus King but the Friday group was completely different? Or maybe people from the Sunday group were expecting the Messiah to overthrow Rome and establish an independent state of Israel, but felt betrayed when Jesus kicked the money lenders out of the temple rather than kicking the Romans out of Jerusalem.

This topic is too long for a forum. You are apparently some kind of biochem person. What you are asking me to explain is akin to a doctoral thesis. But I will do my best to sum it up simply an accurately.

At the time of Jesus, the Romans held complete control over worship, including which factions of Jews ran the temple. The Romans permitted the Sadduccees and Pharisees to run the temple sacrifices. The Essenes had numerous disagreements with the Pharisees and the Sadducees, who both received government subsidies from the Hasmoneans and later the Romans. One prime example is that the Pharisees and Sadducees held Court, including court on sabbath days. These Court proceedings enforced Roman practices, including pagan customs on the sabbath.The Essenes did not agree with this and believed the Second Temple was corrupt. Becuase the Essenes held a strict view of Torah, they did not offer animal sacrifice because Deuteronomy only permits sacrifices at the temple. Since in the view of the Essenes the temple was defunct, holding sacrifices was improper. Also, the Essenes regarded the War Scroll and the Temple Scroll as scripture. Both of these texts say God favors prayer and a pure heart above sacrifice, which is also found in the OT...

Yes, the Sunday group was the Righteous Remnant, and could make Jesus king. The Pharisees and the Sadducees were not in God's Kingdom and had no power to make Jesus King. The Romans had no power to make Jesus king. The Essenes were not expecting the Messiah to overthrow rome. They read the book of Enoch and beleived it is scripture. In that book, the messiah is called a "white ox" and that "white ox" is killed but becomes a bull in which all the animals take refuge..

Regardless, in some ways Jesus did overthrow Rome because the Germans who destroyed rome followed Jesus' teachings.

EDIT: I assure you the righteous Jews were happy the money lenders were kicked out of the temple.


You missed the point. The Essenes didn't currently offer animal sacrifice because they didn't have a temple to perform the sacrifices, largely because they were less politically favored by the Roman government. If the Essenes were in control of the temple, they would have been sacrificing animals. That is very different than the end of animal sacrifice by fulfillment of the law by Jesus. My original point with reference to animal sacrifice was that at least some parts of the law no longer applied after Jesus.

Also, one heck of a stretch on the Germans, but irrelevant.



You did not address my point about the War Scroll and Temple Scroll. Essenes held that scripture did not support animal sacrifices...

Actually Essenes found it unlawful to make sacrifices of animals, reagardless of whether the temple existed or not.


Oh, sorry. I'm not familiar with the war scroll and the temple scroll. Which part of the Torah is the war scroll and the temple scroll? You said they strictly followed the Torah. Are you now saying that they had additionally scripture used to basically ignore parts of the Torah?
I think the fundamental disconnect is that you are following the tradition of the Pharisees who had a pretty loose interpretation of Torah and rejected large portions of scripture that the believing Jews held as inspired during Jesus' time. Jesus clearly read the War Scroll, Temple Scroll, and other second temple literature. The Pharisees and Sadducees did not.

Pliny the Elder (two Roman sources which you obviously hold in esteem) both documented extensively the fact that Essenes did not offer animal sacrifices.

The evidence shows Essenes may have refrained from offering animal sacrifices. For example, the Jewish philosopher Philo of Alexandria, who lived in the first century CE, wrote that the Essenes "do not offer animal sacrifices, considering them impure" (Quod Omnis Probus Liber Sit 12). Similarly, the Roman historian Pliny the Elder, writing in the first century CE, noted that the Essenes "reject pleasures as an evil, but esteem continence, the absence of all sensual gratification, and the renunciation of property, as the highest virtues. Nor do they offer sacrifices" (Natural History 5.73).




Can you give me the link saying Jesus read the War scroll, Temple scroll, and other second temple literature? I can not find it in the Scriptures.
Thanks.
Link is the new testament passage documenting Jesus' sermon on the mount where he preached the principles found in the War Scroll, Temple Scroll and other second temple literature.

I hold the Temples Scrolss,War Scroll etc are indeed inspired scriptures.


Got to love the circular logic here. Jesus read these other documents, therefor he used them as the basis for his sermon, which proves he read these documents.

Catag94
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AG
Through the prophecy of Jeremiah, God made known the new covenant that he would make with the house of Israel. " I will put my law within them, and write it on their hearts. I will be there God and they will be my people."

As others have pointed to the gospel of John, in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God………….. in the Word became flesh and dwelt among us. And, as Christians and theologians recognize, the references here to the Word and the Word becoming/or Jesus.

So, if Jesus is the word, was in the beginning with God, and was God, brought the new covenant, and fulfilled the law of Moses, and is now seated at the right hand of God, in heaven, on his throne, with all authority in heaven, and on earth , I do not understand why anyone would think he would need to actually read the law on pages in writing by human hands to be inspired to give the gospel on the mount. I also do not understand why you would assume he is in heaven, reading the law, the word which is himself, and which is already on the hearts of gods followers, and I would think for sure that includes him. Unless, of course you do not accept some of these Scriptures.
Loyalty
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AG
codker92 said:

Loyalty said:

To the OP - I would ask that you sincerely read and consider the following from the inerrant Word of God. It's the only real answer and truth you need to believe.

John 3:16
Romans 3:23
Romans 6:23
1 Peter 2:24
1John 1:12

Admit you're a sinner.

Ask forgiveness and be willing to turn away from your sins.

Believe that Christ died for you on the cross.

Receive Christ into your heart and life.

Romans 10:13 says, "Whoever calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved."

God bless you.









Cliche old altar call much?

The name of the Lord is a literal person in the OT. Calling on the name of the Lord isn't reciting a magic spell or saying a prayer. Its asking for a literal divine intervention.

Admit you are a sinner and show me where Moses called on Jesus' name. Moses appeared glorified with Jesus in the NT. Where anywhere does Moses use the word "Jesus"?


Just trying to help you out with facts. Moses had nothing to do with what I posted. You're stuck in the old covenant Old Testament which is a wonderful group of text inspired by God that demonstrates your need for a Savior in Jesus Christ.

God bless you.
AgLiving06
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codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
Ever think that maybe God is bigger than theology?

You avoided answering my question again.

And yes, the theological concept of God acknowledges that we only have access to what God has revealed to us. There is an unknown amount of information about God that we do not have access to in this life, but we hope in the next life we will truly be able to understand God.

None of that changes anything about Jesus role within the Trinity and His nature.

codker92
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
Ever think that maybe God is bigger than theology?

You avoided answering my question again.

And yes, the theological concept of God acknowledges that we only have access to what God has revealed to us. There is an unknown amount of information about God that we do not have access to in this life, but we hope in the next life we will truly be able to understand God.

None of that changes anything about Jesus role within the Trinity and His nature.




I'm not making a theological point. I'm just making an observation.
codker92
How long do you want to ignore this user?
AG
AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

AgLiving06 said:

codker92 said:

NCNJ1217 said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

dermdoc said:

codker92 said:

BluHorseShu said:

codker92 said:

Catag94 said:

Would His divine nature be too simple an answer?


It has nothing to do with whether the answer is simple or not. Point is Jesus wasn't reading the church fathers. Jesus did read second temple literature. If you aren't reading the New Testament in context you are going to miss major points. You wouldn't use the communist manifesto to decide how the magma carta is interpreted. Why would you use the church fathers to interpret Jesus commentary in OT
I have to be honest, half the time I have no idea what the point of your posts are but I feel bad when you have no replies so I just throw something up to see what sticks. The theological questions you pose are a little too challenging for me bc I often cannot figure out the reason why the question needs an answer in the first place.

The question I posed is not theological. The question I posed is whether Jesus read books or whether he had information beamed into his head under the conclusory label of inspiration. The second temple literature in circulation at the time of Christ included nearly all of the major points in Jesus' sermon on the mount. This fact directly contradicts the idea of inspiration. Jesus did not just make up his sermon from nothing. He read scripture.
Where is the Scripture that says Jesus studied Scripture?

The only place I know of Scripture even saying he read Scripture is when he reads Isaiah aloud in the synagogue.

And if Jesus is God, why would he need any info or Scripture beamed into his head.

Jesus is the king of Israel, and the King of Israel is commanded to write for himself a copy of the law, approved by the Levitical priests, and he shall read it all the days of his life.

They took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began to shout, " Hosanna! Blessed in He who comes in the NAME of the LORD, even the King of Israel!! John 12:13

And when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, he shall write for himself in a book a copy of this law, approved by the Levitical priests. And it shall be with him, and he shall read in it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God by keeping all the words of this law and these statues, and doing them. Deut. 16:18.

Jesus is commanded by who? Your posts sometimes seem almost anti-trinitarian
What about the post is anti-trinitarian?


Because Jesus is fully human and, at the same time, fully God, which makes the entire thread moot


Edit: you'd have to reject the above idea of the Trinity to take the stance you're taking
Sound like a conclusion to me. Have anything to support what you are saying other than your opinion? There are many many many passages about Jesus doing the will of Yahweh. The will of Yahweh is found in his law, which cites the King of Israel's duty to read scripture. In Daniel, the Son of Man aka Jesus is given thrones, including the throne of Israel, partially to fulfill God's promise to David.

What conclusion would you like us to draw?

The best we can tell, you are purposefully being vague to avoid revealing your real position.



Real position about what? A theological concept?


We don't know. That's the point. What theological concepts are you claiming?
Ever think that maybe God is bigger than theology?

You avoided answering my question again.

And yes, the theological concept of God acknowledges that we only have access to what God has revealed to us. There is an unknown amount of information about God that we do not have access to in this life, but we hope in the next life we will truly be able to understand God.

None of that changes anything about Jesus role within the Trinity and His nature.


That sounds like your opinion.
 
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