Some religion thoughts

24,966 Views | 259 Replies | Last: 3 yr ago by Redstone
Patriot101
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OU= Orthodox
tu = Roman Church
Tech= Lutheranism

We're rivals! But we hug. Ou and tu.
But we are in the same conference...Tech
DirtDiver
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Quote:

Yep. They were the authors of the 66 books of the Bible and we are not.

That's not to say that all truth isn't God's truth.

We are so close, but yet so far away on this.

Just to clarify where I stand if it helps. I believe their are 66 books of the Bible. I believe these 66 books in it's original manuscripts are God's truth revealed to mankind written through human instruments who got it right once. I believe their are enough manuscript copies to conclude that when we read todays bible we are reading what the apostles wrote (given that one is reading a translation using these documents as source doc) not paraphrases.

I believe that any church whether it's a catholic, orthodox, or baptist church error when they teach a doctrine different other than what's recorded in the scriptures.
bigcat22
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AG
Would you say then that you believe in Sola Scriptura?

And, for reference, Sola Scriptura meaning that the Scriptures and the Scriptures alone are sufficient to function as the regula fide, the "rule of faith" for the Church. All that one must believe to be a Christian is found in Scripture and in no other source. That which is not found in Scripture is not binding upon the Christian conscience.
Sb1540
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bigcat22 said:

Would you say then that you believe in Sola Scriptura?

And, for reference, Sola Scriptura meaning that the Scriptures and the Scriptures alone are sufficient to function as the regula fide, the "rule of faith" for the Church. All that one must believe to be a Christian is found in Scripture and in no other source. That which is not found in Scripture is not binding upon the Christian conscience.
Is that really true though? We had a unified vision of Christianity in the early church but if you look today at the Protestant landscape it's extremely fragmented. How one denomination views Christ, the church, sacraments, resurrection, heaven/hell can be utterly different from the other. I think this is caused by moving the faith to the individual. Culture takes over your worldview. For example Luther was heavily influenced by the Rhineland Mystics. That caused a massive shift in the western conscience.

I see the scriptures as equal with Holy Tradition within the Eastern Orthodox Church. Outside of that I see Christian traditions as incomplete. One very important thing to note is that I do not see this as necessary for salvation in the sense of Gods final judgment on you. I consider myself the lowest of sinners.

Edit- Also you can see how sola scriptura collapses on itself even at the begging of the reformation where people like Zwingli claimed he was not taking sola scriptura far enough. Luther was far more conservative in this aspect compared to some of the radical reformers like Zwingli.
BluHorseShu
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AG
Frok said:

Quote:

This is a very major contrast with so much Protestant worship, which is very stagey and often featuring Buddy Christ via a charismatic speaker.

All Protestants should convert.



Stopped reading here. This is like me telling catholics they worship Mary.


Agreed. I think perhaps the some of the terms and ideas miss the mark on that. I'm Catholic after the majority of my life in protestant (Baptist) churches. My best friend is still S. Baptist and we have no worry that the other is saved and living a faith based life. Sure there are fringes, but you're right Frok, its no way to bring Christian brothers and sisters together.
AgLiving06
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Larry Lajitas said:

AgLiving06 said:

I appreciate that this is your opinion on the subject as you've said several times.

My response will continue to be, that in my read of the Scriptures, as well as the church fathers, I don't come to the same conclusion as you.
What is your conclusion?

Well...I'm Lutheran, so my conclusion so far has been that it's the best representation of the ancient church. And I mean this in more than how long a liturgy has been in use, but what the fathers actually believed and taught from the Scriptures.
DirtDiver
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Quote:

Would you say then that you believe in Sola Scriptura?

And, for reference, Sola Scriptura meaning that the Scriptures and the Scriptures alone are sufficient to function as the regula fide, the "rule of faith" for the Church. All that one must believe to be a Christian is found in Scripture and in no other source. That which is not found in Scripture is not binding upon the Christian conscience.
Great questions. Let me dissect these a little.

1. One can hear the gospel message that God created the world, defines right and wrong, and we have sinned against God. God in his mercy sent His Son Jesus to die and rise again for payment for their sins. Once a person believes that Jesus did this for them, they are saved through their belief or faith in jesus.

One can do this without ever going to church, being baptized, or knowing there is such thing as a bible.
God saves through faith in Jesus.

2. Now Scripture is God's revelation of Himself to mankind, is true, and able to lead people to faith in Jesus.
16 All Scripture is inspired by God and beneficial for teaching, for rebuke, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man or woman of God may be fully capable, equipped for every good work.

3. Scripture will not speak to every instance that we will experience in life as there are gray areas in which the conscious convincts. Romans 13 and 14. Example: eating food sacrificed to idols, celebrating with a christmas tree or on december 25th. Where there is no clear example in scripture there is freedom with the qualifier that we as believers in Jesus are not defiling our conscious.

The more we understand what the scriptures teach the more we understand the moral standards of God and where we have freedom.

If a church has a doctrine or teaching that doesn't align with the scriptures then we have false teaching. (ie a person receives the spirit at baptism vs belief.)
Sb1540
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AgLiving06 said:

Larry Lajitas said:

AgLiving06 said:

I appreciate that this is your opinion on the subject as you've said several times.

My response will continue to be, that in my read of the Scriptures, as well as the church fathers, I don't come to the same conclusion as you.
What is your conclusion?

Well...I'm Lutheran, so my conclusion so far has been that it's the best representation of the ancient church. And I mean this in more than how long a liturgy has been in use, but what the fathers actually believed and taught from the Scriptures.
I will say that the attempts of the two churches trying to come to general consensus has been interesting. Not just during the reformation but recently as well. I bought a book called Salvation in Christ: A Lutheran-Orthodox Dialogue but the book fell apart at the seams. Need to order a new copy.

https://www.amazon.com/Salvation-Christ-Lutheran-Orthodox-John-Meyendorff/dp/0806625805
bigcat22
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AG
DirtDiver said:


Quote:

Would you say then that you believe in Sola Scriptura?

And, for reference, Sola Scriptura meaning that the Scriptures and the Scriptures alone are sufficient to function as the regula fide, the "rule of faith" for the Church. All that one must believe to be a Christian is found in Scripture and in no other source. That which is not found in Scripture is not binding upon the Christian conscience.
Great questions. Let me dissect these a little.

1. One can hear the gospel message that God created the world, defines right and wrong, and we have sinned against God. God in his mercy sent His Son Jesus to die and rise again for payment for their sins. Once a person believes that Jesus did this for them, they are saved through their belief or faith in jesus.

One can do this without ever going to church, being baptized, or knowing there is such thing as a bible.
God saves through faith in Jesus.

2. Now Scripture is God's revelation of Himself to mankind, is true, and able to lead people to faith in Jesus.
16 All Scripture is inspired by God and beneficial for teaching, for rebuke, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man or woman of God may be fully capable, equipped for every good work.

3. Scripture will not speak to every instance that we will experience in life as there are gray areas in which the conscious convincts. Romans 13 and 14. Example: eating food sacrificed to idols, celebrating with a christmas tree or on december 25th. Where there is no clear example in scripture there is freedom with the qualifier that we as believers in Jesus are not defiling our conscious.

The more we understand what the scriptures teach the more we understand the moral standards of God and where we have freedom.

If a church has a doctrine or teaching that doesn't align with the scriptures then we have false teaching. (ie a person receives the spirit at baptism vs belief.)
Sb1540
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DirtDiver said:


Quote:

Would you say then that you believe in Sola Scriptura?

And, for reference, Sola Scriptura meaning that the Scriptures and the Scriptures alone are sufficient to function as the regula fide, the "rule of faith" for the Church. All that one must believe to be a Christian is found in Scripture and in no other source. That which is not found in Scripture is not binding upon the Christian conscience.
Great questions. Let me dissect these a little.

1. One can hear the gospel message that God created the world, defines right and wrong, and we have sinned against God. God in his mercy sent His Son Jesus to die and rise again for payment for their sins. Once a person believes that Jesus did this for them, they are saved through their belief or faith in jesus.

One can do this without ever going to church, being baptized, or knowing there is such thing as a bible.
God saves through faith in Jesus.

2. Now Scripture is God's revelation of Himself to mankind, is true, and able to lead people to faith in Jesus.
16 All Scripture is inspired by God and beneficial for teaching, for rebuke, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man or woman of God may be fully capable, equipped for every good work.

3. Scripture will not speak to every instance that we will experience in life as there are gray areas in which the conscious convincts. Romans 13 and 14. Example: eating food sacrificed to idols, celebrating with a christmas tree or on december 25th. Where there is no clear example in scripture there is freedom with the qualifier that we as believers in Jesus are not defiling our conscious.

The more we understand what the scriptures teach the more we understand the moral standards of God and where we have freedom.

If a church has a doctrine or teaching that doesn't align with the scriptures then we have false teaching. (ie a person receives the spirit at baptism vs belief.)
On your own standards it would be permissible to understand how the Holy Spirit is received at infant baptism...especially since at a minimum scriptures mention baptizing households. There weren't any major objections to this until Zwingli came along (who by all accounts a major heretic). He also didn't believe that the Eucharist contained the actual body and blood of Christ. Luther opposed him on both accounts. Before the reformation we see that Tertullian opposed infant baptism but much of his teachings were deemed heretical.

Another issue is that it sounds like your framework of belief is set solely as a product of reason. The fact that you would leave out children is odd.
AgLiving06
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FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Larry Lajitas said:

The Holy Spirit guides the Church, not publishing companies making numerous translations of the Bible that can end up contradicting each other.

Which is another way for you to say the scriptures are manmade.

I happened to be reading through a book on this very topic and this quote seems fitting.

The context was that the roman theologians were calling Scripture a norma "remissiva" -- i.e. it is perfect inasmuch as it calls upon the Church to supply the deficiencies .

The Lutheran response was this: "A norma remissiva is no norm at all, but the authority to which one is referred. According to this notion it would have been sufficient if Scripture had simply told us; Hear the Pope! But the Pope is not the man of whom Scripture says: Hear ye Him, (Matt 17:5)."


The scriptures are man-made. Is that in doubt? Who wrote them? Who compiled them? Who canonized them? Men, Catholic men, who all happened to descend from the Apostles.



Sorry to tell you, but it wasn't the Catholics. Roman Catholicism didn't exist at that time, it was a creation of the great schism.



Do tell! The guys who were the Bishops of Rome for the first thousand years after the death of Christ were not Roman Catholics until the split between east and west?

That's the fallacy...you try to equate the Bishop of Rome of the ancient church with the Pope of today. Just because they claim a similar title doesn't make them equal. The ancient church would not recognize with has become of the modern church and would almost certainly not recognize the Pope as it is today. That's just a modern invention of man.


The Catholic mass resembles the one as described by Justin Martyr in 155. The liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom has been celebrated since the late 300's.

Please make a case, your statements that the ancient church wouldn't recognize apostolic succession don't ring true, since we see evidence of this from the very beginning of the Church, with Matthias.

The Reformation wasn't about getting rid of the mass. In fact, the Augsburg Confession said the following:

"Our churches are falsely accused of abolishing the Mass. The Mass is held among us and celebrated with the highest reverence. [2] Nearly all the usual ceremonies are also preserved, except that the parts sung in Latin are interspersed here and there with German hymns. These have been added to teach the people. [3] For ceremonies are needed for this reason alone, that the uneducated be taught what they need to know about Christ."

----------------------------------------

In terms of why the ancient church wouldn't recognize the modern Roman Catholic church, there's such a multitude of information out there, that I'll leave it to you to search, if you want. What ends up being your specific reason for believing or not is yours alone and I won't pretend to guess at it.
FalconAg06
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AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

Redstone said:

The differences between Catholic and Orthodox are real and important. This includes theology, and I recommend getting David Bentley Hart's (amazing) New Testament translation for details on that.

However, especially in the context of the Council of Florence, it is reasonable to use the umbrella term Apostolic Church.

For such a discussion as this, and given the Sacramental understanding of life and worship, the differences are minimal.


Thats the point I'm getting at. The differences between the Roman Catholic and Eastern Catholic Churches are real and important, yet we share Communion.

I do not view these differences as theological, but philosophically different which has caused divergent praxis although originally the void was not as large, this can be healed and should not continue as an obstacle

You do realize when people say Orthodox, they are not talking about Eastern Catholics.

The Orthodox are not in communion with Rome.


I'm talking about the Eastern Catholics in communion with Rome. Syro-Malabar for example.
FalconAg06
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Larry Lajitas said:

FalconAg06 said:

Redstone said:

The differences between Catholic and Orthodox are real and important. This includes theology, and I recommend getting David Bentley Hart's (amazing) New Testament translation for details on that.

However, especially in the context of the Council of Florence, it is reasonable to use the umbrella term Apostolic Church.

For such a discussion as this, and given the Sacramental understanding of life and worship, the differences are minimal.


Thats the point I'm getting at. The differences between the Roman Catholic and Eastern Catholic Churches are real and important, yet we share Communion.

I do not view these differences as theological, but philosophically different which has caused divergent praxis although originally the void was not as large, this can be healed and should not continue as an obstacle
Eastern Orthodox churches are not in communion with the Roman Catholic Church. Rome stands alone compared to the other ancient churches.


I'm talking about the 23 autonomous Churches in communion with Rome.
FalconAg06
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AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Larry Lajitas said:

The Holy Spirit guides the Church, not publishing companies making numerous translations of the Bible that can end up contradicting each other.

Which is another way for you to say the scriptures are manmade.

I happened to be reading through a book on this very topic and this quote seems fitting.

The context was that the roman theologians were calling Scripture a norma "remissiva" -- i.e. it is perfect inasmuch as it calls upon the Church to supply the deficiencies .

The Lutheran response was this: "A norma remissiva is no norm at all, but the authority to which one is referred. According to this notion it would have been sufficient if Scripture had simply told us; Hear the Pope! But the Pope is not the man of whom Scripture says: Hear ye Him, (Matt 17:5)."


The scriptures are man-made. Is that in doubt? Who wrote them? Who compiled them? Who canonized them? Men, Catholic men, who all happened to descend from the Apostles.



Sorry to tell you, but it wasn't the Catholics. Roman Catholicism didn't exist at that time, it was a creation of the great schism.



Do tell! The guys who were the Bishops of Rome for the first thousand years after the death of Christ were not Roman Catholics until the split between east and west?

That's the fallacy...you try to equate the Bishop of Rome of the ancient church with the Pope of today. Just because they claim a similar title doesn't make them equal. The ancient church would not recognize with has become of the modern church and would almost certainly not recognize the Pope as it is today. That's just a modern invention of man.


The Catholic mass resembles the one as described by Justin Martyr in 155. The liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom has been celebrated since the late 300's.

Please make a case, your statements that the ancient church wouldn't recognize apostolic succession don't ring true, since we see evidence of this from the very beginning of the Church, with Matthias.

The Reformation wasn't about getting rid of the mass. In fact, the Augsburg Confession said the following:

"Our churches are falsely accused of abolishing the Mass. The Mass is held among us and celebrated with the highest reverence. [2] Nearly all the usual ceremonies are also preserved, except that the parts sung in Latin are interspersed here and there with German hymns. These have been added to teach the people. [3] For ceremonies are needed for this reason alone, that the uneducated be taught what they need to know about Christ."

----------------------------------------

In terms of why the ancient church wouldn't recognize the modern Roman Catholic church, there's such a multitude of information out there, that I'll leave it to you to search, if you want. What ends up being your specific reason for believing or not is yours alone and I won't pretend to guess at it.


The reformation was about pride and arrogance on both parties. The degeneration in belief came as natural fallout just as a second divorce often follows the first.

Luther would not have recognized Protestants and modern Protestants would think luther Catholic were they to investigate his beliefs.

Again, don't tell me to research, give me examples.

I'll give you one: The College of Cardinals,

What would they recognize:

The episcopate, marian doctrine, the real presence of the eucharist, reconciliation through the ministry of a Priest, the order of mass, etc etc
AgLiving06
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FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Larry Lajitas said:

The Holy Spirit guides the Church, not publishing companies making numerous translations of the Bible that can end up contradicting each other.

Which is another way for you to say the scriptures are manmade.

I happened to be reading through a book on this very topic and this quote seems fitting.

The context was that the roman theologians were calling Scripture a norma "remissiva" -- i.e. it is perfect inasmuch as it calls upon the Church to supply the deficiencies .

The Lutheran response was this: "A norma remissiva is no norm at all, but the authority to which one is referred. According to this notion it would have been sufficient if Scripture had simply told us; Hear the Pope! But the Pope is not the man of whom Scripture says: Hear ye Him, (Matt 17:5)."


The scriptures are man-made. Is that in doubt? Who wrote them? Who compiled them? Who canonized them? Men, Catholic men, who all happened to descend from the Apostles.



Sorry to tell you, but it wasn't the Catholics. Roman Catholicism didn't exist at that time, it was a creation of the great schism.



Do tell! The guys who were the Bishops of Rome for the first thousand years after the death of Christ were not Roman Catholics until the split between east and west?

That's the fallacy...you try to equate the Bishop of Rome of the ancient church with the Pope of today. Just because they claim a similar title doesn't make them equal. The ancient church would not recognize with has become of the modern church and would almost certainly not recognize the Pope as it is today. That's just a modern invention of man.


The Catholic mass resembles the one as described by Justin Martyr in 155. The liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom has been celebrated since the late 300's.

Please make a case, your statements that the ancient church wouldn't recognize apostolic succession don't ring true, since we see evidence of this from the very beginning of the Church, with Matthias.

The Reformation wasn't about getting rid of the mass. In fact, the Augsburg Confession said the following:

"Our churches are falsely accused of abolishing the Mass. The Mass is held among us and celebrated with the highest reverence. [2] Nearly all the usual ceremonies are also preserved, except that the parts sung in Latin are interspersed here and there with German hymns. These have been added to teach the people. [3] For ceremonies are needed for this reason alone, that the uneducated be taught what they need to know about Christ."

----------------------------------------

In terms of why the ancient church wouldn't recognize the modern Roman Catholic church, there's such a multitude of information out there, that I'll leave it to you to search, if you want. What ends up being your specific reason for believing or not is yours alone and I won't pretend to guess at it.


The reformation was about pride and arrogance on both parties. The degeneration in belief came as natural fallout just as a second divorce often follows the first.

Luther would not have recognized Protestants and modern Protestants would think luther Catholic were they to investigate his beliefs.

Again, don't tell me to research, give me examples.

I'll give you one: The College of Cardinals,

What would they recognize:

The episcopate, marian doctrine, the real presence of the eucharist, reconciliation through the ministry of a Priest, the order of mass, etc etc

Deflection.

marian doctrine? No they wouldn't recognize that. As was pointed out in another thread, not even St. Thomas Aquinas would recognize it.

Real Presence? Sure, but not transubstantiation.

Pope? Nope, not the supremacy taught today.

Saints? Not as robust as it has now gotten.

And so on and so on.
FalconAg06
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AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Larry Lajitas said:

The Holy Spirit guides the Church, not publishing companies making numerous translations of the Bible that can end up contradicting each other.

Which is another way for you to say the scriptures are manmade.

I happened to be reading through a book on this very topic and this quote seems fitting.

The context was that the roman theologians were calling Scripture a norma "remissiva" -- i.e. it is perfect inasmuch as it calls upon the Church to supply the deficiencies .

The Lutheran response was this: "A norma remissiva is no norm at all, but the authority to which one is referred. According to this notion it would have been sufficient if Scripture had simply told us; Hear the Pope! But the Pope is not the man of whom Scripture says: Hear ye Him, (Matt 17:5)."


The scriptures are man-made. Is that in doubt? Who wrote them? Who compiled them? Who canonized them? Men, Catholic men, who all happened to descend from the Apostles.



Sorry to tell you, but it wasn't the Catholics. Roman Catholicism didn't exist at that time, it was a creation of the great schism.



Do tell! The guys who were the Bishops of Rome for the first thousand years after the death of Christ were not Roman Catholics until the split between east and west?

That's the fallacy...you try to equate the Bishop of Rome of the ancient church with the Pope of today. Just because they claim a similar title doesn't make them equal. The ancient church would not recognize with has become of the modern church and would almost certainly not recognize the Pope as it is today. That's just a modern invention of man.


The Catholic mass resembles the one as described by Justin Martyr in 155. The liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom has been celebrated since the late 300's.

Please make a case, your statements that the ancient church wouldn't recognize apostolic succession don't ring true, since we see evidence of this from the very beginning of the Church, with Matthias.

The Reformation wasn't about getting rid of the mass. In fact, the Augsburg Confession said the following:

"Our churches are falsely accused of abolishing the Mass. The Mass is held among us and celebrated with the highest reverence. [2] Nearly all the usual ceremonies are also preserved, except that the parts sung in Latin are interspersed here and there with German hymns. These have been added to teach the people. [3] For ceremonies are needed for this reason alone, that the uneducated be taught what they need to know about Christ."

----------------------------------------

In terms of why the ancient church wouldn't recognize the modern Roman Catholic church, there's such a multitude of information out there, that I'll leave it to you to search, if you want. What ends up being your specific reason for believing or not is yours alone and I won't pretend to guess at it.


The reformation was about pride and arrogance on both parties. The degeneration in belief came as natural fallout just as a second divorce often follows the first.

Luther would not have recognized Protestants and modern Protestants would think luther Catholic were they to investigate his beliefs.

Again, don't tell me to research, give me examples.

I'll give you one: The College of Cardinals,

What would they recognize:

The episcopate, marian doctrine, the real presence of the eucharist, reconciliation through the ministry of a Priest, the order of mass, etc etc

Deflection.

marian doctrine? No they wouldn't recognize that. As was pointed out in another thread, not even St. Thomas Aquinas would recognize it.

Real Presence? Sure, but not transubstantiation.

Pope? Nope, not the supremacy taught today.

Saints? Not as robust as it has now gotten.

And so on and so on.



How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.





Patriot101
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Catholics basically put process theology on the map everywhere, especially in South America. It's basically a kissing cousin of open theism.
AgLiving06
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Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.
FalconAg06
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AgLiving06 said:

Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.



What about the belief that she was sinless? And was bodily assumed into Heaven? You don't find those commonalities fairly important?

The East believes the same exact thing as transubstantiation without calling it transubstantiation. They just use the "divine mystery" label without the aristotelian metaphysics.

I don't think anyone in the ancient church would point out that he was Bishop of Antioch because the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome that even you acknowledge is due to it being the seat of Peter.

AgLiving06
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FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.



What about the belief that she was sinless? And was bodily assumed into Heaven? You don't find those commonalities fairly important?

The East believes the same exact thing as transubstantiation without calling it transubstantiation. They just use the "divine mystery" label without the aristotelian metaphysics.

I don't think anyone in the ancient church would point out that he was Bishop of Antioch because the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome that even you acknowledge is due to it being the seat of Peter.



Sure...their "commonalities" important just like it's important that when comparing a Civic and a Ferrari, you focus on the fact they are both simply cars and nothing else. What's "under the hood" is quite different.

---------------------

I'm 100% sure they would bring up that Peter was the Bishop of Antioch (believe Paul was as well at one point), especially if you want to make the claim that Rome is important because of Peter. Antioch would have at least a similar claim.
Redstone
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AG
The Pope can move his See. When St. Peter went to Rome to teach, he was Pope. He was also ordered by God to turn around and be a martyr when he was fleeing his See. Also, for those who say Francis is terrible, I agree fully, but don't want to derail, and let's just say we've had antipopes.
FalconAg06
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AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.



What about the belief that she was sinless? And was bodily assumed into Heaven? You don't find those commonalities fairly important?

The East believes the same exact thing as transubstantiation without calling it transubstantiation. They just use the "divine mystery" label without the aristotelian metaphysics.

I don't think anyone in the ancient church would point out that he was Bishop of Antioch because the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome that even you acknowledge is due to it being the seat of Peter.



Sure...their "commonalities" important just like it's important that when comparing a Civic and a Ferrari, you focus on the fact they are both simply cars and nothing else. What's "under the hood" is quite different.

---------------------

I'm 100% sure they would bring up that Peter was the Bishop of Antioch (believe Paul was as well at one point), especially if you want to make the claim that Rome is important because of Peter. Antioch would have at least a similar claim.


I think you're a guy who has dug in that isn't able to wave the white flag. You've gone from saying that the Orthodox and the Catholics don't share much regarding the Marian beliefs other than her perpetual virginity, and then said her sinlessness and assumption/dormition were also shared, but were like a Honda and a Ferrari. Why don't you explain where their Marian beliefs diverge? I'll give you a hint: her sinlessness, although that's more of a logical outflow from the different POV's regarding original sin.

You claimed above that the ancient church would recognize the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome, but not the Supremacy. Why would the Bishop of Rome have any Primacy, other than the Apostolic Succession from Peter?

swimmerbabe11
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Larry Lajitas said:

Martin Q. Blank said:

CrackerJackAg said:

craigernaught said:

The cycle of proselytizing on this forum, now firmly in the Catholic and Orthodox phase, is so weird.


Well, I don't know if it's a phase on this board. I can pretty much promise you if you move 1,000, 1,500 or 5,000 years from now the Apostolic Churches will still be around.

Those that went to some cool super hip husband/wife non-denominational church will be remembered as having attended some weird dead form of pseudo Christianity.

More likely than not they won't be remembered at all.
They said the same thing about Islam.
Islam is far more powerful. They have a rigorous worship and sacramental life unlike here where you walk into church on Sunday with your coffee and a hipster ripping on a guitar.



I'm no fan of contemporary worship, but..

man, every time I see a post like this, I think of the number of Catholic churches I've been to that are just historic landmarks and museums now.
AgLiving06
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FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.



What about the belief that she was sinless? And was bodily assumed into Heaven? You don't find those commonalities fairly important?

The East believes the same exact thing as transubstantiation without calling it transubstantiation. They just use the "divine mystery" label without the aristotelian metaphysics.

I don't think anyone in the ancient church would point out that he was Bishop of Antioch because the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome that even you acknowledge is due to it being the seat of Peter.



Sure...their "commonalities" important just like it's important that when comparing a Civic and a Ferrari, you focus on the fact they are both simply cars and nothing else. What's "under the hood" is quite different.

---------------------

I'm 100% sure they would bring up that Peter was the Bishop of Antioch (believe Paul was as well at one point), especially if you want to make the claim that Rome is important because of Peter. Antioch would have at least a similar claim.


I think you're a guy who has dug in that isn't able to wave the white flag. You've gone from saying that the Orthodox and the Catholics don't share much regarding the Marian beliefs other than her perpetual virginity, and then said her sinlessness and assumption/dormition were also shared, but were like a Honda and a Ferrari. Why don't you explain where their Marian beliefs diverge? I'll give you a hint: her sinlessness, although that's more of a logical outflow from the different POV's regarding original sin.

You claimed above that the ancient church would recognize the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome, but not the Supremacy. Why would the Bishop of Rome have any Primacy, other than the Apostolic Succession from Peter?



Dug in on what? You've made no point at all except that you keep saying over and over that "we are like the orthodox." It's interesting that it's almost like a guilt trip that I see from Catholics who want so desperately to be approved by the Orthodox. I've sat through the introductory classes to Orthodoxy. They tend to make it pretty clear who caused the schism and what repentance is needed for reunification to take place.

Here's a quick link: OCA.org

With this nice blurb at the end:

Quote:

While much that the Orthodox say of Mary "sounds" similar to that which is taught by Roman Catholicism, there are serious differences on many levels.

So yeah...my car example works quite well.

----------------------------------

My claim is that papal supremacy would not be recognized and that the titles bestowed on Rome simply because of Peter.

In fact, at a quick google search, it seems to be that a thought is that because of Peter and Paul's life and eventual martyrdom in Rome, that's what made it such an important place.

Either way, my original claim continues to stand unopposed.
FalconAg06
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AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.



What about the belief that she was sinless? And was bodily assumed into Heaven? You don't find those commonalities fairly important?

The East believes the same exact thing as transubstantiation without calling it transubstantiation. They just use the "divine mystery" label without the aristotelian metaphysics.

I don't think anyone in the ancient church would point out that he was Bishop of Antioch because the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome that even you acknowledge is due to it being the seat of Peter.



Sure...their "commonalities" important just like it's important that when comparing a Civic and a Ferrari, you focus on the fact they are both simply cars and nothing else. What's "under the hood" is quite different.

---------------------

I'm 100% sure they would bring up that Peter was the Bishop of Antioch (believe Paul was as well at one point), especially if you want to make the claim that Rome is important because of Peter. Antioch would have at least a similar claim.


I think you're a guy who has dug in that isn't able to wave the white flag. You've gone from saying that the Orthodox and the Catholics don't share much regarding the Marian beliefs other than her perpetual virginity, and then said her sinlessness and assumption/dormition were also shared, but were like a Honda and a Ferrari. Why don't you explain where their Marian beliefs diverge? I'll give you a hint: her sinlessness, although that's more of a logical outflow from the different POV's regarding original sin.

You claimed above that the ancient church would recognize the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome, but not the Supremacy. Why would the Bishop of Rome have any Primacy, other than the Apostolic Succession from Peter?



Dug in on what? You've made no point at all except that you keep saying over and over that "we are like the orthodox." It's interesting that it's almost like a guilt trip that I see from Catholics who want so desperately to be approved by the Orthodox. I've sat through the introductory classes to Orthodoxy. They tend to make it pretty clear who caused the schism and what repentance is needed for reunification to take place.

Here's a quick link: OCA.org

With this nice blurb at the end:

Quote:

While much that the Orthodox say of Mary "sounds" similar to that which is taught by Roman Catholicism, there are serious differences on many levels.

So yeah...my car example works quite well.

----------------------------------

My claim is that papal supremacy would not be recognized and that the titles bestowed on Rome simply because of Peter.

In fact, at a quick google search, it seems to be that a thought is that because of Peter and Paul's life and eventual martyrdom in Rome, that's what made it such an important place.

Either way, my original claim continues to stand unopposed.


Orthodoxy and Catholicism comprise ancient Christianity, as. Catholic defending Catholicism, we only have the Orthodox to draw similarities to. As I said, the beliefs on the Blessed Virgin Mary/Theotokos are extremely similar with the main difference being the mechanism of her sinlessness.

If you have to Google search to find your argument, you didn't have an argument to begin with, you had a belief held without fact, which you took to Google to try and find support for.
AgLiving06
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FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

FalconAg06 said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quote:

How is this a deflection? You said "they wouldn't recognize the Catholic church" and I said "yes they would and here is why"

It's a deflection to try and shift the conversation to "the reformation was about this or that" and then wholesale try and change the conversation to well "luther wouldn't recognize this or that."

Quote:

Really? How do you explain the similarities between the Orthodox and Catholics beliefs on Mary? Forget them, what about Luther's beliefs on Mary?

Similarities. I think the biggest similarity would be that she remained a virgin after giving birth to Jesus. Beyond that, I'm not sure they have much in common at all. Luther's view was similar, though it's not a requirement to believe that.

Quote:

The early church would absolutely understand transubstantiation as they had to explain how they were eating Christ's very body and blood without gnawing on his arm.

And yet the East has never held to that...

Quote:

And yes, they would recognize the Pope. The title, the Apostolic See of Rome, his Primacy, and his succession from Peter.

As I said in another post, they would recognize the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Supremacy is not something they'd recognize. They'd actually probably point out that Peter was also (or originally) the Bishop of Antioch.



What about the belief that she was sinless? And was bodily assumed into Heaven? You don't find those commonalities fairly important?

The East believes the same exact thing as transubstantiation without calling it transubstantiation. They just use the "divine mystery" label without the aristotelian metaphysics.

I don't think anyone in the ancient church would point out that he was Bishop of Antioch because the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome that even you acknowledge is due to it being the seat of Peter.



Sure...their "commonalities" important just like it's important that when comparing a Civic and a Ferrari, you focus on the fact they are both simply cars and nothing else. What's "under the hood" is quite different.

---------------------

I'm 100% sure they would bring up that Peter was the Bishop of Antioch (believe Paul was as well at one point), especially if you want to make the claim that Rome is important because of Peter. Antioch would have at least a similar claim.


I think you're a guy who has dug in that isn't able to wave the white flag. You've gone from saying that the Orthodox and the Catholics don't share much regarding the Marian beliefs other than her perpetual virginity, and then said her sinlessness and assumption/dormition were also shared, but were like a Honda and a Ferrari. Why don't you explain where their Marian beliefs diverge? I'll give you a hint: her sinlessness, although that's more of a logical outflow from the different POV's regarding original sin.

You claimed above that the ancient church would recognize the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome, but not the Supremacy. Why would the Bishop of Rome have any Primacy, other than the Apostolic Succession from Peter?



Dug in on what? You've made no point at all except that you keep saying over and over that "we are like the orthodox." It's interesting that it's almost like a guilt trip that I see from Catholics who want so desperately to be approved by the Orthodox. I've sat through the introductory classes to Orthodoxy. They tend to make it pretty clear who caused the schism and what repentance is needed for reunification to take place.

Here's a quick link: OCA.org

With this nice blurb at the end:

Quote:

While much that the Orthodox say of Mary "sounds" similar to that which is taught by Roman Catholicism, there are serious differences on many levels.

So yeah...my car example works quite well.

----------------------------------

My claim is that papal supremacy would not be recognized and that the titles bestowed on Rome simply because of Peter.

In fact, at a quick google search, it seems to be that a thought is that because of Peter and Paul's life and eventual martyrdom in Rome, that's what made it such an important place.

Either way, my original claim continues to stand unopposed.


Orthodoxy and Catholicism comprise ancient Christianity, as. Catholic defending Catholicism, we only have the Orthodox to draw similarities to. As I said, the beliefs on the Blessed Virgin Mary/Theotokos are extremely similar with the main difference being the mechanism of her sinlessness.

If you have to Google search to find your argument, you didn't have an argument to begin with, you had a belief held without fact, which you took to Google to try and find support for.

I'll answer the second question first.

The google search was to see how the Orthodox might respond to "Bishop of Rome" comment. Since I'm not Orthodox, I don't know what they would say. What I did know was they do not see things on par with Roman Catholics and so I was curious to their response. It's merely icing on the cake, not me needing support for my belief.

-----------------

To your first comment, this is unfortunately, a typical response from a Roman Catholic. You start with the assumption your right and when that get challenged you don't have much behind it. So you just respond that you're right and that's evidence you're right.

You're claim that (only) Orthodox and Catholicism is not supported in fact or evidence. That probably works in largely Roman Catholic settings, but not in any other setting. I've sat in Orthodox classes and am Lutheran. Both are in agreement that Rome strayed (though they will differ on just how much and on what).

The big difference between you and me is that I can certainly look at Rome and see there are certainly elements of the ancient church. The Reformation was not about starting from new, but fixing what had strayed. I am happy that Rome did acknowledge false teachings and had a "counter reformation" of their own.

It's unfortunate though that the same thing that stopped a true Reformation is the same thing that caused the Great Schism. The incorrect belief in Papal Supremacy for the Bishop of Rome.
DirtDiver
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Quote:

On your own standards it would be permissible to understand how the Holy Spirit is received at infant baptism...especially since at a minimum scriptures mention baptizing households. There weren't any major objections to this until Zwingli came along (who by all accounts a major heretic). He also didn't believe that the Eucharist contained the actual body and blood of Christ. Luther opposed him on both accounts. Before the reformation we see that Tertullian opposed infant baptism but much of his teachings were deemed heretical.

Another issue is that it sounds like your framework of belief is set solely as a product of reason. The fact that you would leave out children is odd.


I may have a little trouble connecting all of the dots to reply to this statement however I'll try.

1. I believe the Holy Spirit is received as the moment of faith and has nothing to do with water baptism. (Eph. 1:13-14, Acts 19:2, people receiving the Holy Spirit before baptism in Acts 9, Jesus words in John 7:39)

2. I don't believe the Eucharist contains the actual body of Christ. (1 Lords supper when Jesus broke the break His body was intact and he was giving them bread. There are multiple "I AM" statements in John in which Jesus is using figurative language to communicate truth. I am the Light, I am the true bread, I am the door, I am the good shepherd, I am the resurrection and the life, I am in the Father, I and the true vine, I am a king. Recognizing the literary style of the gospel of John is key to understanding the claims within each context. Is Jesus literally wheat that people injest that turns to flesh, light waves and particles, a wooden door with hinges, or a grape vine?

3. Babies - there are a few references in the scripture about he salvation of children but no where does it teach that water baptism saves them from anything other than maybe physical dirt. I believe God would be just taking babies, little children, mentally challenged people to heaven who do not have the capacity to believe in the gospel.

AgLiving06
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DirtDiver said:


Quote:

On your own standards it would be permissible to understand how the Holy Spirit is received at infant baptism...especially since at a minimum scriptures mention baptizing households. There weren't any major objections to this until Zwingli came along (who by all accounts a major heretic). He also didn't believe that the Eucharist contained the actual body and blood of Christ. Luther opposed him on both accounts. Before the reformation we see that Tertullian opposed infant baptism but much of his teachings were deemed heretical.

Another issue is that it sounds like your framework of belief is set solely as a product of reason. The fact that you would leave out children is odd.


I may have a little trouble connecting all of the dots to reply to this statement however I'll try.

1. I believe the Holy Spirit is received as the moment of faith and has nothing to do with water baptism. (Eph. 1:13-14, Acts 19:2, people receiving the Holy Spirit before baptism in Acts 9, Jesus words in John 7:39)

2. I don't believe the Eucharist contains the actual body of Christ. (1 Lords supper when Jesus broke the break His body was intact and he was giving them bread. There are multiple "I AM" statements in John in which Jesus is using figurative language to communicate truth. I am the Light, I am the true bread, I am the door, I am the good shepherd, I am the resurrection and the life, I am in the Father, I and the true vine, I am a king. Recognizing the literary style of the gospel of John is key to understanding the claims within each context. Is Jesus literally wheat that people injest that turns to flesh, light waves and particles, a wooden door with hinges, or a grape vine?

3. Babies - there are a few references in the scripture about he salvation of children but no where does it teach that water baptism saves them from anything other than maybe physical dirt. I believe God would be just taking babies, little children, mentally challenged people to heaven who do not have the capacity to believe in the gospel.



I think there's some problems with points 2 and 3.

On point 2, Jesus certainly used parables with "I AM", but those were clarified for the Apostles. In this case, He knew he'd be going to his death hours later. If this was figurative, He used it knowing he would not be able to explain it, and the Apostles did not see need to explain it.

Further, we see from that point on, the "I am" becomes literal. When arrested, it's "I am he." With Pilate, it's "who do you say I am." in all cases, the "I am" becomes specific and not figurative.

Point 3, is the weakest argument you could make though. We see a lot of instances, usually in Acts, of groups of people being baptized. We don't ever see instances of Jesus or the Apostles excluding children from these groups. If you go by the text, you can't exclude them.

I think the second argument you make about "babies, children, mentally challenged is independent on whether children should be baptized or not. I think it actually creates a theological issue to take this approach because you're actually putting a test up of what is sufficient faith.
Patriot101
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The Eastern Orthodox are not unified against the death penalty. That's a difference.
DirtDiver
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Quote:

I think there's some problems with points 2 and 3.

On point 2, Jesus certainly used parables with "I AM", but those were clarified for the Apostles. In this case, He knew he'd be going to his death hours later. If this was figurative, He used it knowing he would not be able to explain it, and the Apostles did not see need to explain it.

Further, we see from that point on, the "I am" becomes literal. When arrested, it's "I am he." With Pilate, it's "who do you say I am." in all cases, the "I am" becomes specific and not figurative.

Yes, there are instances in which Jesus uses the I AM phrase in a literal sense. There are also instances in which he uses the I AM phrase in a figurative sense.

When a person says, I AM the vine and you are the branches, I AM the door, I am the bread of life - we must we wise enough not to translate these instances as literal.


Quote:

Point 3, is the weakest argument you could make though. We see a lot of instances, usually in Acts, of groups of people being baptized. We don't ever see instances of Jesus or the Apostles excluding children from these groups. If you go by the text, you can't exclude them.
It could be the case that children and infants were baptized and it could be the case that they were not. The scriptures are not clear on this point. Assuming they were is irrelevant to the point I making because the scriptures are clear the water baptism is not require for salvation.

Quote:

I think the second argument you make about "babies, children, mentally challenged is independent on whether children should be baptized or not. I think it actually creates a theological issue to take this approach because you're actually putting a test up of what is sufficient faith.
It would only create a theological issue for one who believes that water baptism is required for salvation or removes original sin. Where does the age of accountability end, I have no clue. I just know what each one is accountable to God at some point in their life to place their faith in Jesus. I'm simply saying that I'm not convinced that a 1 year old has that capacity to understand Jesus' death and resurrection applied to their own sins.
Redstone
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AG
A quick aside I thought was fascinating -

"BAR" means "the son of" in Aramaic.

Peter's original name is "Simon Bar-Jonah" Simon the son of Jonah.

Bartholomew is "the son of Timothy" - Bar-Timaeus.

We know the Aramaic word "Abba"...

"And He saith: Abba, Father, all things are possible to Thee: remove this chalice from Me; but not what I will, but what Thou wilt."
Mark 14: 36

So Barabbas' name literally means "Son of the Father"... GIVE US THE SON OF THE FATHER! LET HIS BLOOD BE UPON US AND UPON OUR CHILDREN!

Our Lord said So be it!
AgLiving06
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Quote:

Yes, there are instances in which Jesus uses the I AM phrase in a literal sense. There are also instances in which he uses the I AM phrase in a figurative sense.

When a person says, I AM the vine and you are the branches, I AM the door, I am the bread of life - we must we wise enough not to translate these instances as literal.

You glossed over where I pointed out that when he used the "I am" figuratively, he followed it up with an explanation.

For example:

"I am the true vine, and my Father is the vinedresser.2 Every branch in me that does not bear fruit he takes away, and every branch that does bear fruit he prunes, that it may bear more fruit. 3 Already you are clean because of the word that I have spoken to you. 4 Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit by itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in me. 5 I am the vine; you are the branches. Whoever abides in me and I in him, he it is that bears much fruit, for apart from me you can do nothing. 6 If anyone does not abide in me he is thrown away like a branch and withers; and the branches are gathered, thrown into the fire, and burned. 7 If you abide in me, and my words abide in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you. 8 By this my Father is glorified, that you bear much fruit and so prove to be my disciples. 9 As the Father has loved me, so have I loved you. Abide in my love. 10 If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love, just as I have kept my Father's commandments and abide in his love. 11 These things I have spoken to you, that my joy may be in you, and that your joy may be full."

An explanation is provided.

No such explanation is given when it comes to Communion. So in the absence of an explanation, shouldn't we take Him at His word? And I don't mean that we should believe in Transubstantiation. that takes it too far. I mean to say that He says the bread/wine is his body/blood and we don't try and think beyond that.

Quote:

It could be the case that children and infants were baptized and it could be the case that they were not. The scriptures are not clear on this point. Assuming they were is irrelevant to the point I making because the scriptures are clear the water baptism is not require for salvation.

Then infant baptism is acceptable right? There's no Scriptural reason to exclude it and we do have Scripture of households being baptized (Acts 16:15 for example).

The Scriptures certainly has a multitude of verses that baptism is something that should be done for all believers. Peter and Paul both talk about baptizing not as a "maybe" but as an expected thing to occur. To dismiss it is to dismiss all of the calls for baptism.

Further, it dismisses what Paul says in Acts 2:
"And Peter said to them, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 For the promise is for you and for your children and for all who are far off, everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself."

This is what Lutherans teach baptism is. The promise of God bestowed on those who are baptized and we gladly baptize all so they receive that promise. It doesn't mean that the individual (children or adult) won't fall away later, but that God calls for it so we do it.

Quote:

It would only create a theological issue for one who believes that water baptism is required for salvation or removes original sin. Where does the age of accountability end, I have no clue. I just know what each one is accountable to God at some point in their life to place their faith in Jesus. I'm simply saying that I'm not convinced that a 1 year old has that capacity to understand Jesus' death and resurrection applied to their own sins.

No it creates a theological issue because this requires you to set a "minimum" standard for what is the acceptable level of capacity. Your response shows that as you aren't sure a 1 year old has the capacity to understand. Or said differently, you create a synergistic act of man deciding when he's ready to "receive God." Yet Jesus calls us to receive the Kingdom of God like a child (Mark 10).

But lets use me as an example. I'm in my mid 30s. I believe I am a christian and have been for years, yet I know more now than I did then. Did I become a christian when I truly believe that Jesus died for my sins? Or did I not have the right level of understanding? When does someone achieve that level and who sets it?

Instead, if we see baptism as a promise from God, we see that we are putting our faith in God to bring that child into the faith at the appointed time. We take ourselves out of the equation and give it to God.
Sb1540
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DirtDiver said:


Quote:

On your own standards it would be permissible to understand how the Holy Spirit is received at infant baptism...especially since at a minimum scriptures mention baptizing households. There weren't any major objections to this until Zwingli came along (who by all accounts a major heretic). He also didn't believe that the Eucharist contained the actual body and blood of Christ. Luther opposed him on both accounts. Before the reformation we see that Tertullian opposed infant baptism but much of his teachings were deemed heretical.

Another issue is that it sounds like your framework of belief is set solely as a product of reason. The fact that you would leave out children is odd.


I may have a little trouble connecting all of the dots to reply to this statement however I'll try.

1. I believe the Holy Spirit is received as the moment of faith and has nothing to do with water baptism. (Eph. 1:13-14, Acts 19:2, people receiving the Holy Spirit before baptism in Acts 9, Jesus words in John 7:39)

2. I don't believe the Eucharist contains the actual body of Christ. (1 Lords supper when Jesus broke the break His body was intact and he was giving them bread. There are multiple "I AM" statements in John in which Jesus is using figurative language to communicate truth. I am the Light, I am the true bread, I am the door, I am the good shepherd, I am the resurrection and the life, I am in the Father, I and the true vine, I am a king. Recognizing the literary style of the gospel of John is key to understanding the claims within each context. Is Jesus literally wheat that people injest that turns to flesh, light waves and particles, a wooden door with hinges, or a grape vine?

3. Babies - there are a few references in the scripture about he salvation of children but no where does it teach that water baptism saves them from anything other than maybe physical dirt. I believe God would be just taking babies, little children, mentally challenged people to heaven who do not have the capacity to believe in the gospel.


I'll just comment on #2. There's not really any debate on the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist during the early church. This is a western phenomenon. One of the reasons is that culturally people back then were Platonists. So if you asked someone with this worldview if Christ's presence in the Eucharist was real or symbolic they would say "yes". My Orthodox priest would say something like "It's a mystery beyond understanding." For the record I don't think anyone here is saying that if you put it under a microscope you will find human flesh and blood. You would be completely missing the point if you thought that.

" Nothing is harder to understand than a symbolic work. A symbol always transcends the one who makes use of it and makes him say in reality more than he is aware of expressing." -Albert Camus
AgLiving06
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I heard an interesting take on infant baptism and why early christians would have assumed it meant infants.

The parallel given was to God commanding Abraham to to circumsize all males 8 days old in Genesis 17.

"9 And God said to Abraham, "As for you, you shall keep my covenant, you and your offspring after you throughout their generations. 10 This is my covenant, which you shall keep, between me and you and your offspring after you: Every male among you shall be circumcised. 11 You shall be circumcised in the flesh of your foreskins, and it shall be a sign of the covenant between me and you. 12 He who is eight days old among you shall be circumcised. Every male throughout your generations, whether born in your house or bought with your money from any foreigner who is not of your offspring, 13 both he who is born in your house and he who is bought with your money, shall surely be circumcised. So shall my covenant be in your flesh an everlasting covenant. 14 Any uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin shall be cut off from his people; he has broken my covenant."

So when Peter tells the everyone in Acts 2 to repent and be baptized because that is the promise of the Lord, they would have understood it to not only include all who were circumsized (men), but women as well. To exclude baby's from baptism, would seemingly take away God's promise from a group that previously had it and that wouldn't make any sense.

I thought it was an interesting argument that I had not heard before, that was more specific to infant baptism than baptism in general.

thoughts?
Redstone
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AG
My thought to that question is abstract: baptism is circumcision. Sacramental context is essential to understand how these are conduits of God's Grace received in faith.

It is dangerous to "read" "outside" the Apostolic Church and its Sacramental understanding of life and salvation history.

To do so (and YES, read the Bible) follows the path of Milton (an extraordinarily intelligent man) -
NT says no-fault divorce is unacceptable (Jesus was stricter on sexual morality than the Pharisees) .... so, to the OT we go!
 
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