This is a general question arising out of deal we have going.
I'm representing seller and we are selling unimproved property, but this would pertain to any real estate transaction. Buyer's agent want's seller to forfeit remedy on paragraph 15 relating to specific performance and other legal remedies leaving the EM as sole remedy in the event the buyer defaults after option period. This was non-negotiable for them. We presented that either both parties forfeit this remedy or it stays for both parties. They lost the deal and we executed with the offer we had despite them having a better overall offer aside from this issue.
First question, I'm pretty sure you can't alter a TREC promulgated form in that manner? It would need to be drafted by an attorney.
Other question is, why would a buyer think a seller would ever agree to this? Am I missing something?
I can understand a buyer saying if they forfeit this their only restitution is having their EM returned back, but the seller at least gets to keep the EM if buyer defaults. But what if our damages are above EM? We would be foregoing our ability to pursue damages above that amount if the buyer defaults.
I know specific performance is mostly a non-issue and the likelihood for any of legal issues arising is low, but its really the notion that a buyer would ever think a seller would be ok eliminating all eliminating all legal remedies yet the buyer retains theirs would be acceptable that is throwing me off.
Just really strange the deal ended that way and never had that happen before. Wanted to hear your thoughts.
I'm representing seller and we are selling unimproved property, but this would pertain to any real estate transaction. Buyer's agent want's seller to forfeit remedy on paragraph 15 relating to specific performance and other legal remedies leaving the EM as sole remedy in the event the buyer defaults after option period. This was non-negotiable for them. We presented that either both parties forfeit this remedy or it stays for both parties. They lost the deal and we executed with the offer we had despite them having a better overall offer aside from this issue.
First question, I'm pretty sure you can't alter a TREC promulgated form in that manner? It would need to be drafted by an attorney.
Other question is, why would a buyer think a seller would ever agree to this? Am I missing something?
I can understand a buyer saying if they forfeit this their only restitution is having their EM returned back, but the seller at least gets to keep the EM if buyer defaults. But what if our damages are above EM? We would be foregoing our ability to pursue damages above that amount if the buyer defaults.
I know specific performance is mostly a non-issue and the likelihood for any of legal issues arising is low, but its really the notion that a buyer would ever think a seller would be ok eliminating all eliminating all legal remedies yet the buyer retains theirs would be acceptable that is throwing me off.
Just really strange the deal ended that way and never had that happen before. Wanted to hear your thoughts.