If someone like Heineken-Ashi with his superior command of specific economic numbers cannot persuade you, I suppose my simplistic and reductive examples have no hope either, but since you posited some questions, I'll play.
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Just as a thought exercise, why would a company take out debt at a fixed interest rate to expand production capacity in a deflationary environment[?]
That company would 'run the numbers' based on their best expectations of future economic conditions, whether those be inflationary or deflationary.
Assuming those numbers looked good, and that they predicted correctly, they would make money regardless.
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So my question is, why is 2% inflation so outlandish when every single investment opportunity includes inflation expectations in the expected returns (real returns vs. Nominal returns).
Aside from the fact that the mythical "it's only 2%" skim goes to the house, the inflation amount is never a constant, which leads investors to ponder the age-old question -- What will rates do? This leads to additional uncertainty that needn't be present, at least over longer periods of time.
And using our good friend the Rule of 72, we see that even at 2%, an unimproved asset in a stagnant market will double in nominal (not real) price in 36 years. And to reference my previous example of a doubling in price in a mere 20 years, we only need to assume a 3.6% Y-O-Y inflation rate, which doesn't seem so outlandish these days, does it.
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Inflation is only really bad for you if your wages stagnate (which in today's job market is your fault), if it goes unexpectedly higher (like 2022, but not an issue since - see stock market returns), or you keep all your wealth in cash under your mattress.
I disagree. And cash held in T-Bills is certainly not 'under the mattress', and to add insult to injury, the returns are taxed at ordinary income rates. Again, the house wins.
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You're pretending that everything that happened in your completely hypothetical and reductive example is some zero sum manifestation of inflation. Which interestingly means there is no scenario where the asset can go up in price without it being inflation.
Let's revisit my previous example. In it I held a piece of real estate for 20 years. I specified that it was a stagnant market, and I made no mention of any improvements made during that time to the property. Yet, in those 20 years, it doubled in nominal price.
Now, let's say the neighbor 1/2 mile away bought a similar property at the same time I did. Unlike me, he got off his ass and applied the classic 3 M's to the asset -- men, money and machines.
He persuaded (and paid for) the county to run a water line to his property, and to pave the gravel road that ran by the place. He then built several natural water features on the property and cleared it of invasive brush. He then subdivided the property into small tracts and advertised and promoted it for sale.
At the end of the same 20 year period, his property easily more than doubled in price. In short, he created 'real wealth', which under our income tax system is rightfully taxed. In contrast, I created no real wealth with my property, and yet taxes are levied on the purely paper gain. The house wins again.
So, to your point -- my neighbor's property did go up in price
without it being from inflation, but rather being from his creation of real wealth.