Outstanding defense of Apostolic Christianity at Harvard

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Zobel
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AG

Quote:

there were many independent churches springing up organically as the apostles and their disciples went around the world preaching.
define independent. and please provide evidence for this claim.

Quote:

The writings were by the apostles and their close associates, as inspired by the Holy Spirit, and were immediately understood as being inspired by God and the words of God by all Christians.
true
Quote:

It did not take or require any formal action by the RCC or any other church to make those writings the word of God.
false. what makes something scripture is the community elevating it to that use. a writing becomes scripture, and authoritative, when the community uses it as scripture, and treats it as authoritative. that's why different communities in the period second temple judaism had different scriptures, and why different christian communities had different scriptures.
KingofHazor
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Quote:

Quote:
there were many independent churches springing up organically as the apostles and their disciples went around the world preaching.
define independent. and please provide evidence for this claim.

Independent = (shooting from the hip) no formal organization binding them together, no required fees imposed from a central organization. I can't provide evidence of the lack of something. My statement is based on the lack of evidence of anything other than independent churches. They may have helped each other out, but that did not destroy their independence.

Quote:

Quote:
The writings were by the apostles and their close associates, as inspired by the Holy Spirit, and were immediately understood as being inspired by God and the words of God by all Christians.
true
Quote:

Quote:
It did not take or require any formal action by the RCC or any other church to make those writings the word of God.
false. what makes something scripture is the community elevating it to that use. a writing becomes scripture, and authoritative, when the community uses it as scripture, and treats it as authoritative. that's why different communities in the period second temple judaism had different scriptures, and why different christian communities had different scriptures.

False. That's simply your belief which is circular to your membership in the EO. Just because someone or some church claims something to be scriptural does not make it so. The Book of Mormon is not scriptural, not because the EO or RCC deny it, but because God did not inspire it. No church is the initial or final authority on what is scriptural, only God is.
Zobel
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AG

Quote:

Independent = (shooting from the hip) no formal organization binding them together, no required fees imposed from a central organization. I can't provide evidence of the lack of something. My statement is based on the lack of evidence of anything other than independent churches. They may have helped each other out, but that did not destroy their independence.

you can't provide evidence but then say the evidence is independent churches? what evidence is that?

Quote:

False. That's simply your belief which is circular to your membership in the EO. Just because someone or some church claims something to be scriptural does not make it so. The Book of Mormon is not scriptural, not because the EO or RCC deny it, but because God did not inspire it. No church is the initial or final authority on what is scriptural, only God is.
this has nothing to do with Orthodoxy.

if a group claims a document is scripture for them, it is scripture for them. the book of mormon functions as scripture for LDS people. the fact that it is scripture for them and not for you is precisely the dividing line between you and them.

in the same way, the writings that functioned as scripture in various communities (and the teachings they contained) were the dividing lines between heretical and orthodox groups.

how does God show this authority?
KingofHazor
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Quote:

how does God show this authority?
You believe in the authority of the EO church/hierarchy. How did God show this authority?

Also, what evidence exists that the original churches were not independent?
AGC
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AG
KingofHazor said:

Quote:

how does God show this authority?
You believe in the authority of the EO church/hierarchy. How did God show this authority?

Also, what evidence exists that the original churches were not independent?


I'll take New Testament for $1,000, Alex. It's pretty much all laid out there. Apostolic succession. Epistles. Apostles discussing belief and conformity of teaching.
KingofHazor
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Quote:

I'll take New Testament for $1,000, Alex. It's pretty much all laid out there. Apostolic succession. Epistles. Apostles discussing belief and conformity of teaching.
Millions and millions of Christians can't seem to find it there.
Zobel
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AG

It's ok to say you don't know

PacifistAg
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AG
KingofHazor said:

Quote:

I'll take New Testament for $1,000, Alex. It's pretty much all laid out there. Apostolic succession. Epistles. Apostles discussing belief and conformity of teaching.
Millions and millions of Christians can't seem to find it there.
I would say that Acts 15 and the letter sent by the Jerusalem Council seems to point to some level of structural (non-independent) nature of the Church from the earliest days.

Acts 15:30 states they delivered the letter to Antioch to be read. Then in Acts 16:4, we see it again as "they went through the cities, they delivered to them the decrees to keep, which were determined by the apostles and elders at Jerusalem." There's also Ephesians 2:19-22 "Now, therefore, you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God, having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ Himself being the chief cornerstone, in whom the whole building, being fitted together, grows into a holy temple in the Lord, in whom you also are being built together for a dwelling place of God in the Spirit."

We see also in Holy Scriptures the transfer of Apostolic authority as well. Not to mention, the early church fathers, such as St. Clement, St. Eusebius, and St. Irenaeus speak on this as well.

Granted, there are Orthodox Christians here who can speak with much more knowledge on this, but I don't think the fact that millions can't find it is much of an argument.
AGC
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AG
KingofHazor said:

Quote:

I'll take New Testament for $1,000, Alex. It's pretty much all laid out there. Apostolic succession. Epistles. Apostles discussing belief and conformity of teaching.
Millions and millions of Christians can't seem to find it there.


Yes, they can. But they've been given a totally different lense that intentionally disregards it. That's why unpacking evangelical assumptions is so important in dialogue; many don't know what's baked in.

So when they read letters Paul wrote to various churches, they don't ask themselves how this man had authority over these 'independent' churches, to correct doctrine or rebuke individuals. When Paul and Peter argue, they don't ask themselves why it matters if they're all 'independent'; there's nothing to appeal to.
PacifistAg
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AG
Maybe my understanding is flawed, but the more I study and worship within an Orthodox church, the more it seems to me that the idea of an "independent church" seems to be an oxymoron. Again, I'm very possibly wrong here, but it seems like that's like saying you have an independent foot from the rest of the body.
Quo Vadis?
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KingofHazor said:

Quote:

How could the church not exist prior to the Scriptures? Many of the scriptures themselves are letters from Paul to extant Churches.
You don't really believe that "churches" = "magisterium". For example, I assume that you don't believe that any Protestant churches are part of the magisterium. A church would have to be part of the RCC to be included in the magisterium, or am I wrong?

There was no RCC at the time of the writing of the NT churches. Rather, there were many independent churches springing up organically as the apostles and their disciples went around the world preaching.

The writings were by the apostles and their close associates, as inspired by the Holy Spirit, and were immediately understood as being inspired by God and the words of God by all Christians. It did not take or require any formal action by the RCC or any other church to make those writings the word of God.

God made those writings the word of God.
A Church would have to have valid apostolic succession in order to be a part of the Magisterium. The Catholic Church is made up of the Roman Catholic Church and the Eastern Catholic Church.

The fact that the Church hadn't made it's way to Rome yet doesn't mean the Catholic Church didn't exist. The Catholic Church is headed by Christ. Christ gave his earthly authority to Peter, so the Church is where Peter and his descendants are; which is now Rome. If Rome were wiped off the face of the earth, the Church would be wherever Peter's descendants moved it.

I have no idea what you mean by "independent", the fact that Paul is writing to different churches and telling them how to act and what to believe shows that they were dependent on the Apostles for teaching.

There was a lot more hemming and hawing over what was scripture than what you're claiming; there's a reason they had half a dozen councils to go over the canon. The deuterocanon, which was included as scripture by the councils was argued about for a dozen centuries, and even Martin Luther wasn't sure whether or not they were canonical; he himself didn't like James or Revelation to say "scripture is self evident" is false.



The Banned
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Read the letter of Clement to the Corinthians. This was a letter that meets all the qualifying criteria of scripture (written by a direct disciple of the apostle, read in many local churches, etc) and was included in many biblical canons of regional councils. This book was one of the debated books that ultimately did not make the final cut, and even then, only because it wasn't spread widely enough for everyone to agree on it.

I bring this up for two reasons:

1. While most of the books were immediately understood to be inspired, not all of them were. As others have mentioned, James, Hebrews, Revelations to name a few. And many that were understood to be inspired by many Christians (such as Clement) did not make it into the final canon of scripture. It wasn't completely black and white

2. This is a bishop of Rome writing to a Greek church far away, reminding them that they are to submit to the presbyters set over it. The letter outlines how Jesus chose the apostles and the apostles chose others to continue their role. It speaks against the "sedition" against the church leaders who were placed in this role, and pronounces judgement on those that don't obey this letter. He even sends delegates to deliver the letter and return to him when the matter was resolved, meaning he expected his letter to set things straight.

The entirety of the NT canon was not easily arrived at and churches were not "independent". Independent meant schism, which was what many of the early leaders of the church were writing to warn about.
The Banned
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KingofHazor said:

Quote:

I'll take New Testament for $1,000, Alex. It's pretty much all laid out there. Apostolic succession. Epistles. Apostles discussing belief and conformity of teaching.
Millions and millions of Christians can't seem to find it there.
As the original video states, not a great argument. Millions of people can't find the trinity in the bible (Mormons, JW's, Muslims, etc). I would assume you would say the trinity is in the bible, yes?
Quo Vadis?
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The Banned said:

KingofHazor said:

Quote:

I'll take New Testament for $1,000, Alex. It's pretty much all laid out there. Apostolic succession. Epistles. Apostles discussing belief and conformity of teaching.
Millions and millions of Christians can't seem to find it there.
As the original video states, not a great argument. Millions of people can't find the trinity in the bible (Mormons, JW's, Muslims, etc). I would assume you would say the trinity is in the bible, yes?


Not only that but if you consider Protestants as Christian, they are in the minority when compared to Catholic, and eastern and oriental orthodox.

So my question would be, what? Are the billions of apostolic Christian's wrong?
KingofHazor
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AGC said:

KingofHazor said:

NM

AgLiving06
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The Banned said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

KingofHazor said:

Quote:

There could not have been "sola scriptura" for 250 years because there was not yet any Bible. It was tradition and letter established by the magisterium of the apostolic church that led Christians.
That is simply not true. What were the ante-Nicene fathers quoting in their letters and writings that they referred to as Scripture and authoritative?

And there was no "magisterium" in those early years.

The early Christians recognized immediately that the writings that we today call the "Bible" were in fact God's word. Those writings, inspired by the Holy Spirit, no more needed authenticity from men than did the words that Christ himself spoke.

Quote:

However, I am most likely to reach a deeper understanding by exploring the Scriptures with a variety of sources and experts. My claim would be that those experts should include church fathers and the traditions they set forth as "scriptures" as we see them today did yet exist.
That's true, so long as we recognize that those early church fathers were not inspired and have no more authority than does a Godly man or woman writing today. And it's clear that errors erupted quickly within the church, so the only way to verify the validity of the early Church fathers is if their writings correspond with Scripture.


There was absolutely magisterium in the early years. Why would the apostles need to meet in Jerusalem to discuss whether or not the Gentiles needed to be circumcised and other laws?

Arius, Valentius, Nestorius, all tested their beliefs against and claimed their beliefs were scriptural

No formal Magisterium existed to refute them.

That a Council was called to address it certainly does not equate to the modern Roman Catholic system.

And even then, their arguments were not making claims based on tradition, but on that of Scripture...hence Sola Scriptura.


The Apostles and their descendants were the formal Magisterium, no different than any of the other councils. They got together to answer questions that had arisen, and guided by the Holy Spirit, they made their ruling. Whether it was about circumcision, how Christ was exactly God and/or Man, the economy of the Holy Spirit, etc etc.

As evinced by the Heretics, Scripture is a deadly weapon without the proper teaching authority. The Church existed before scripture, there is no "pre-existence of scripture". We know when the Gospels were written, we know when Revelation was written, the church predates both.

Yes other scripture existed at the time, but something cannot both be "ultimate" and "evolving" at the same time.

No. You're doing the same thing DirtDiver did and trying to force your current church claims onto the past.

That a council was held does not equate to some formal Magisterium, and in fact we know from all of the Robber councils and contradictory councils that even claims at Nicaea took a long time to be accepted.

Your second paragraph does nothing to harm Sola Scriptura.

Your claim about the Church existing prior to the Scriptures is false, but that's a consistent error from Rome in defense of their formal structure.

Couple questions:

What do you believe the Magisterium is?

It's clear that there were Chrisitans prior to New Testament scriptures. If they weren't the Church, what would you call them?

And this is the flaw.

We start with the obvious. Scripture existed prior to the Church. The Old Testament is clearly Scripture that does not oppose or contradict the New Testament. It existed prior to the church.

Second, and also obvious, the New Testament was not new teachings, but those spoken by the Word himself (John 1) and through the Holy Spirit. I presume that we can agree that Jesus speaking and teaching proceeded the Church itself.

So everything in the New Testament was taught prior to the Church. That the medium chose from spoken to written does not change that the content was being taught before it was written. The writing only recorded what already existed.

Unless of course you're going to claim the Christian Church existed prior to Jesus....

That's Rome's problem and the problem on this thread. Roman Catholics start with the end in mind. The Magisterium exists now, therefore it existed then without evidence. You need the Church to own the Scriptures, therefore Rome built them.

I've said it before and will say it again, let the Fathers be the fathers. They weren't Roman Catholic and would not recognize Rome of today. That's not a good or bad thing, but reality. The retconning by the laity and pop apologists really doesn't help Rome's case.
Quo Vadis?
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AgLiving06 said:

The Banned said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

KingofHazor said:

Quote:

There could not have been "sola scriptura" for 250 years because there was not yet any Bible. It was tradition and letter established by the magisterium of the apostolic church that led Christians.
That is simply not true. What were the ante-Nicene fathers quoting in their letters and writings that they referred to as Scripture and authoritative?

And there was no "magisterium" in those early years.

The early Christians recognized immediately that the writings that we today call the "Bible" were in fact God's word. Those writings, inspired by the Holy Spirit, no more needed authenticity from men than did the words that Christ himself spoke.

Quote:

However, I am most likely to reach a deeper understanding by exploring the Scriptures with a variety of sources and experts. My claim would be that those experts should include church fathers and the traditions they set forth as "scriptures" as we see them today did yet exist.
That's true, so long as we recognize that those early church fathers were not inspired and have no more authority than does a Godly man or woman writing today. And it's clear that errors erupted quickly within the church, so the only way to verify the validity of the early Church fathers is if their writings correspond with Scripture.


There was absolutely magisterium in the early years. Why would the apostles need to meet in Jerusalem to discuss whether or not the Gentiles needed to be circumcised and other laws?

Arius, Valentius, Nestorius, all tested their beliefs against and claimed their beliefs were scriptural

No formal Magisterium existed to refute them.

That a Council was called to address it certainly does not equate to the modern Roman Catholic system.

And even then, their arguments were not making claims based on tradition, but on that of Scripture...hence Sola Scriptura.


The Apostles and their descendants were the formal Magisterium, no different than any of the other councils. They got together to answer questions that had arisen, and guided by the Holy Spirit, they made their ruling. Whether it was about circumcision, how Christ was exactly God and/or Man, the economy of the Holy Spirit, etc etc.

As evinced by the Heretics, Scripture is a deadly weapon without the proper teaching authority. The Church existed before scripture, there is no "pre-existence of scripture". We know when the Gospels were written, we know when Revelation was written, the church predates both.

Yes other scripture existed at the time, but something cannot both be "ultimate" and "evolving" at the same time.

No. You're doing the same thing DirtDiver did and trying to force your current church claims onto the past.

That a council was held does not equate to some formal Magisterium, and in fact we know from all of the Robber councils and contradictory councils that even claims at Nicaea took a long time to be accepted.

Your second paragraph does nothing to harm Sola Scriptura.

Your claim about the Church existing prior to the Scriptures is false, but that's a consistent error from Rome in defense of their formal structure.

Couple questions:

What do you believe the Magisterium is?

It's clear that there were Chrisitans prior to New Testament scriptures. If they weren't the Church, what would you call them?

And this is the flaw.

We start with the obvious. Scripture existed prior to the Church. The Old Testament is clearly Scripture that does not oppose or contradict the New Testament. It existed prior to the church.

Second, and also obvious, the New Testament was not new teachings, but those spoken by the Word himself (John 1) and through the Holy Spirit. I presume that we can agree that Jesus speaking and teaching proceeded the Church itself.

So everything in the New Testament was taught prior to the Church. That the medium chose from spoken to written does not change that the content was being taught before it was written. The writing only recorded what already existed.

Unless of course you're going to claim the Christian Church existed prior to Jesus....

That's Rome's problem and the problem on this thread. Roman Catholics start with the end in mind. The Magisterium exists now, therefore it existed then without evidence. You need the Church to own the Scriptures, therefore Rome built them.

I've said it before and will say it again, let the Fathers be the fathers. They weren't Roman Catholic and would not recognize Rome of today. That's not a good or bad thing, but reality. The retconning by the laity and pop apologists really doesn't help Rome's case.



Can you explain to me how John's revelation in Patmos was taught in the Old Testament? Can you explain to me how the book of ACTS was taught in the Old Testament? How Christ's teachings on dietary restrictions was taught in the Old Testament? Are you even thinking about anything you're saying?

The magisterium has always existed. St Augustine sent the canon to be confirmed by the Bishop of Rome. Irenaeus confirms Peter and Paul both founding the Church of Rome.

You can say it before, and you can say it again, but it's still just nonsense.
FIDO95
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AG


Kuddos to Knechtle for this response admitting that the OC pushed him "hard" and his response to those claims were poor. He makes a good follow up point on 3 principles that should define us as Christian and I would agree with all three. As I mentioned on an early post, I feel it more fruitful to celebrate the things we agree on then becoming angry and combative on the things that divide us. My Catholic Priests' best racquetball buddy is a Baptist Pastor. Those two pious men can obviously find common ground to call each other brothers in Christ. I believe that is a wonderful example for us all to follow.
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AgLiving06
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Quo Vadis? said:

AgLiving06 said:

The Banned said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

KingofHazor said:

Quote:

There could not have been "sola scriptura" for 250 years because there was not yet any Bible. It was tradition and letter established by the magisterium of the apostolic church that led Christians.
That is simply not true. What were the ante-Nicene fathers quoting in their letters and writings that they referred to as Scripture and authoritative?

And there was no "magisterium" in those early years.

The early Christians recognized immediately that the writings that we today call the "Bible" were in fact God's word. Those writings, inspired by the Holy Spirit, no more needed authenticity from men than did the words that Christ himself spoke.

Quote:

However, I am most likely to reach a deeper understanding by exploring the Scriptures with a variety of sources and experts. My claim would be that those experts should include church fathers and the traditions they set forth as "scriptures" as we see them today did yet exist.
That's true, so long as we recognize that those early church fathers were not inspired and have no more authority than does a Godly man or woman writing today. And it's clear that errors erupted quickly within the church, so the only way to verify the validity of the early Church fathers is if their writings correspond with Scripture.


There was absolutely magisterium in the early years. Why would the apostles need to meet in Jerusalem to discuss whether or not the Gentiles needed to be circumcised and other laws?

Arius, Valentius, Nestorius, all tested their beliefs against and claimed their beliefs were scriptural

No formal Magisterium existed to refute them.

That a Council was called to address it certainly does not equate to the modern Roman Catholic system.

And even then, their arguments were not making claims based on tradition, but on that of Scripture...hence Sola Scriptura.


The Apostles and their descendants were the formal Magisterium, no different than any of the other councils. They got together to answer questions that had arisen, and guided by the Holy Spirit, they made their ruling. Whether it was about circumcision, how Christ was exactly God and/or Man, the economy of the Holy Spirit, etc etc.

As evinced by the Heretics, Scripture is a deadly weapon without the proper teaching authority. The Church existed before scripture, there is no "pre-existence of scripture". We know when the Gospels were written, we know when Revelation was written, the church predates both.

Yes other scripture existed at the time, but something cannot both be "ultimate" and "evolving" at the same time.

No. You're doing the same thing DirtDiver did and trying to force your current church claims onto the past.

That a council was held does not equate to some formal Magisterium, and in fact we know from all of the Robber councils and contradictory councils that even claims at Nicaea took a long time to be accepted.

Your second paragraph does nothing to harm Sola Scriptura.

Your claim about the Church existing prior to the Scriptures is false, but that's a consistent error from Rome in defense of their formal structure.

Couple questions:

What do you believe the Magisterium is?

It's clear that there were Chrisitans prior to New Testament scriptures. If they weren't the Church, what would you call them?

And this is the flaw.

We start with the obvious. Scripture existed prior to the Church. The Old Testament is clearly Scripture that does not oppose or contradict the New Testament. It existed prior to the church.

Second, and also obvious, the New Testament was not new teachings, but those spoken by the Word himself (John 1) and through the Holy Spirit. I presume that we can agree that Jesus speaking and teaching proceeded the Church itself.

So everything in the New Testament was taught prior to the Church. That the medium chose from spoken to written does not change that the content was being taught before it was written. The writing only recorded what already existed.

Unless of course you're going to claim the Christian Church existed prior to Jesus....

That's Rome's problem and the problem on this thread. Roman Catholics start with the end in mind. The Magisterium exists now, therefore it existed then without evidence. You need the Church to own the Scriptures, therefore Rome built them.

I've said it before and will say it again, let the Fathers be the fathers. They weren't Roman Catholic and would not recognize Rome of today. That's not a good or bad thing, but reality. The retconning by the laity and pop apologists really doesn't help Rome's case.



Can you explain to me how John's revelation in Patmos was taught in the Old Testament? Can you explain to me how the book of ACTS was taught in the Old Testament? How Christ's teachings on dietary restrictions was taught in the Old Testament? Are you even thinking about anything you're saying?

The magisterium has always existed. St Augustine sent the canon to be confirmed by the Bishop of Rome. Irenaeus confirms Peter and Paul both founding the Church of Rome.

You can say it before, and you can say it again, but it's still just nonsense.

Nobody is seriously willing arguing "St. Augustine sent the canon to be confirmed by the Bishop of Rome." That never happened. There's zero historical evidence of this, an in fact we see, from Rome itself, the exact opposite.

One of the more interesting things I've found during my Mary thesis research is the stark difference between Rome pop apologists/laity and the scholars. The scholars know statements like this are just made up and don't entertain it. Even the modern Roman Church of the middle ages didn't make those false claims.

This is from the middle ages:

"Here we close our commentaries on the historical books of the Old Testament. For the rest (that is, Judith, Tobit, and the books of Maccabees) are counted by St Jerome out of the canonical books, and are placed amongst the Apocrypha, along with Wisdom and Ecclesiasticus, as is plain from the Prologus Galeatus. Nor be thou disturbed, like a raw scholar, if thou shouldest find anywhere, either in the sacred councils or the sacred doctors, these books reckoned as canonical. For the words as well of councils as of doctors are to be reduced to the correction of Jerome. Now, according to his judgment, in the epistle to the bishops Chromatius and Heliodorus, these books (and any other like books in the canon of the Bible) are not canonical, that is, not in the nature of a rule for confirming matters of faith. Yet, they may be called canonical, that is, in the nature of a rule for the edification of the faithful, as being received and authorised in the canon of the Bible for that purpose. By the help of this distinction thou mayest see thy way clearly through that which Augustine says, and what is written in the provincial council of Carthage."

~Cardinal Cajetan, "Commentary on All the Authentic Historical Books of the Old Testament"

Rome has arguments it can make. That Augustine or the Pope did anything to confirm a canon isn't one of them. That doesn't hold up to any level of scrutiny.

----------------

To your first paragraph. What? That's a complete misunderstanding of what I said.

I pointed out that the Old Testament, which are Scriptures (and the bulk of the pages) all pre-exist the Church. I didn't state it explicitly, but will now that they also didn't require an infallible Church to be written and/or preserved. The onus is actually on Rome to defend why the New Testament needs that (hint it doesn't). So we have Scripture that existed prior to the church.

But further, the teachings of Jesus all occurred prior to the Church and that is the New Testament. Nothing written afterward opposes or adds to what Jesus taught. That it was written down later does not change that fact. As Rome likes to argue, there were things taught orally that we either don't know about or were later written down. All proceeded Scripture and the Church.

Finally, That Revelation was written later certainly doesn't help your claim. That a prophesy occurred that still is not understood does not change anything because we are left interpreting it in light of the Word of God, which as has been proven, proceeded the Church.
Quo Vadis?
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AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

AgLiving06 said:

The Banned said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

AgLiving06 said:

Quo Vadis? said:

KingofHazor said:

Quote:

There could not have been "sola scriptura" for 250 years because there was not yet any Bible. It was tradition and letter established by the magisterium of the apostolic church that led Christians.
That is simply not true. What were the ante-Nicene fathers quoting in their letters and writings that they referred to as Scripture and authoritative?

And there was no "magisterium" in those early years.

The early Christians recognized immediately that the writings that we today call the "Bible" were in fact God's word. Those writings, inspired by the Holy Spirit, no more needed authenticity from men than did the words that Christ himself spoke.

Quote:

However, I am most likely to reach a deeper understanding by exploring the Scriptures with a variety of sources and experts. My claim would be that those experts should include church fathers and the traditions they set forth as "scriptures" as we see them today did yet exist.
That's true, so long as we recognize that those early church fathers were not inspired and have no more authority than does a Godly man or woman writing today. And it's clear that errors erupted quickly within the church, so the only way to verify the validity of the early Church fathers is if their writings correspond with Scripture.


There was absolutely magisterium in the early years. Why would the apostles need to meet in Jerusalem to discuss whether or not the Gentiles needed to be circumcised and other laws?

Arius, Valentius, Nestorius, all tested their beliefs against and claimed their beliefs were scriptural

No formal Magisterium existed to refute them.

That a Council was called to address it certainly does not equate to the modern Roman Catholic system.

And even then, their arguments were not making claims based on tradition, but on that of Scripture...hence Sola Scriptura.


The Apostles and their descendants were the formal Magisterium, no different than any of the other councils. They got together to answer questions that had arisen, and guided by the Holy Spirit, they made their ruling. Whether it was about circumcision, how Christ was exactly God and/or Man, the economy of the Holy Spirit, etc etc.

As evinced by the Heretics, Scripture is a deadly weapon without the proper teaching authority. The Church existed before scripture, there is no "pre-existence of scripture". We know when the Gospels were written, we know when Revelation was written, the church predates both.

Yes other scripture existed at the time, but something cannot both be "ultimate" and "evolving" at the same time.

No. You're doing the same thing DirtDiver did and trying to force your current church claims onto the past.

That a council was held does not equate to some formal Magisterium, and in fact we know from all of the Robber councils and contradictory councils that even claims at Nicaea took a long time to be accepted.

Your second paragraph does nothing to harm Sola Scriptura.

Your claim about the Church existing prior to the Scriptures is false, but that's a consistent error from Rome in defense of their formal structure.

Couple questions:

What do you believe the Magisterium is?

It's clear that there were Chrisitans prior to New Testament scriptures. If they weren't the Church, what would you call them?

And this is the flaw.

We start with the obvious. Scripture existed prior to the Church. The Old Testament is clearly Scripture that does not oppose or contradict the New Testament. It existed prior to the church.

Second, and also obvious, the New Testament was not new teachings, but those spoken by the Word himself (John 1) and through the Holy Spirit. I presume that we can agree that Jesus speaking and teaching proceeded the Church itself.

So everything in the New Testament was taught prior to the Church. That the medium chose from spoken to written does not change that the content was being taught before it was written. The writing only recorded what already existed.

Unless of course you're going to claim the Christian Church existed prior to Jesus....

That's Rome's problem and the problem on this thread. Roman Catholics start with the end in mind. The Magisterium exists now, therefore it existed then without evidence. You need the Church to own the Scriptures, therefore Rome built them.

I've said it before and will say it again, let the Fathers be the fathers. They weren't Roman Catholic and would not recognize Rome of today. That's not a good or bad thing, but reality. The retconning by the laity and pop apologists really doesn't help Rome's case.



Can you explain to me how John's revelation in Patmos was taught in the Old Testament? Can you explain to me how the book of ACTS was taught in the Old Testament? How Christ's teachings on dietary restrictions was taught in the Old Testament? Are you even thinking about anything you're saying?

The magisterium has always existed. St Augustine sent the canon to be confirmed by the Bishop of Rome. Irenaeus confirms Peter and Paul both founding the Church of Rome.

You can say it before, and you can say it again, but it's still just nonsense.

Nobody is seriously willing arguing "St. Augustine sent the canon to be confirmed by the Bishop of Rome." That never happened. There's zero historical evidence of this, an in fact we see, from Rome itself, the exact opposite.

One of the more interesting things I've found during my Mary thesis research is the stark difference between Rome pop apologists/laity and the scholars. The scholars know statements like this are just made up and don't entertain it. Even the modern Roman Church of the middle ages didn't make those false claims.

This is from the middle ages:

"Here we close our commentaries on the historical books of the Old Testament. For the rest (that is, Judith, Tobit, and the books of Maccabees) are counted by St Jerome out of the canonical books, and are placed amongst the Apocrypha, along with Wisdom and Ecclesiasticus, as is plain from the Prologus Galeatus. Nor be thou disturbed, like a raw scholar, if thou shouldest find anywhere, either in the sacred councils or the sacred doctors, these books reckoned as canonical. For the words as well of councils as of doctors are to be reduced to the correction of Jerome. Now, according to his judgment, in the epistle to the bishops Chromatius and Heliodorus, these books (and any other like books in the canon of the Bible) are not canonical, that is, not in the nature of a rule for confirming matters of faith. Yet, they may be called canonical, that is, in the nature of a rule for the edification of the faithful, as being received and authorised in the canon of the Bible for that purpose. By the help of this distinction thou mayest see thy way clearly through that which Augustine says, and what is written in the provincial council of Carthage."

~Cardinal Cajetan, "Commentary on All the Authentic Historical Books of the Old Testament"

Rome has arguments it can make. That Augustine or the Pope did anything to confirm a canon isn't one of them. That doesn't hold up to any level of scrutiny.

----------------

To your first paragraph. What? That's a complete misunderstanding of what I said.

I pointed out that the Old Testament, which are Scriptures (and the bulk of the pages) all pre-exist the Church. I didn't state it explicitly, but will now that they also didn't require an infallible Church to be written and/or preserved. The onus is actually on Rome to defend why the New Testament needs that (hint it doesn't). So we have Scripture that existed prior to the church.

But further, the teachings of Jesus all occurred prior to the Church and that is the New Testament. Nothing written afterward opposes or adds to what Jesus taught. That it was written down later does not change that fact. As Rome likes to argue, there were things taught orally that we either don't know about or were later written down. All proceeded Scripture and the Church.

Finally, That Revelation was written later certainly doesn't help your claim. That a prophesy occurred that still is not understood does not change anything because we are left interpreting it in light of the Word of God, which as has been proven, proceeded the Church.


Yes, St Augustine sent the canon of Carthage, to the "church across the sea" for confirmation, according to the Statua Concili Africani. Draw a line across the sea from Carthage, tell me where it leads.

Also, Cardinal cajetan's commentary notwithstanding, that's not something he gets to decide. If you'd actually done your research, you'd see that Pope Gregory I actually waffled on whether 1 Maccabees was canonical in a memoir of his. This also does not matter.

Jerome is also a stupid example as he included the deuterocanon in his vulgate translation out of deference to church authority despite his personal opinions.

With regards to your "written down later" statement, revelation wasn't merely written down later, it occurred later, John wasn't exiled to Patmos for several generations after the death of Christ, so no, the New Testament wasn't complete at the time of the death of Christ.
The Banned
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Quo seems to be handling the history of NT scripture and the early church, so I won't address that. I'll stick with the logic of your argument.

Your (paraphrased) claim:
- OT existed before the Church
- OT Is scripture
- The fullness of NT scripture was taught orally by Jesus, only to be written later.
- Therefore, Scripture existed before the Church

*Please correct me if you think I've misrepresented this*


If I grant you this logical premise, then allow me to take that logic to it's ultimate end…

- Moses, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, etc existed before OT scripture was written.
- The fullness of OT scripture was contained in the inspired oral tradition of these men.
- The fact that the tradition moved from oral to written does not change the content of teaching.
- Therefore, Tradition (capital T) existed prior to scripture.

Using your line of logic would require that divinely protected oral Tradition existed before scripture. Since these men were God's prophets and spoke His Word prior to it being written, the OT merely recorded what was already taught. So, if scripture is only documenting what Tradition already taught, and the scriptures never self-identify as the only infallible authority, we could logically claim "Sola Traditio".

To be clear, I don't believe in sola tradtio. I am only trying to show that the way you are approaching the issue of the NT creates significant issues.
KingofHazor
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Feel free to disagree, AgLiving06, but "tradition" is one of several factors Protestants and other non-Catholics point to in support of the Canonicity of the Scriptures. It doesn't create Canonicity, but it supports it. Protestants do not at all ignore tradition; we simply do not give it the weight that Catholics do.
The Banned
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KingofHazor said:

Feel free to disagree, AgLiving06, but "tradition" is one of several factors Protestants and other non-Catholics point to in support of the Canonicity of the Scriptures. It doesn't create Canonicity, but it supports it. Protestants do not at all ignore tradition; we simply do not give it the weight that Catholics do.
I know many protestants feel this way, but it isn't true. Sola Scriptura is an authoritative tradition for protestants. It is not explicitly stated in the bible itself. It is a Tradition that serves as a core element of Protestantism, and if this Tradition is removed, your faith would look very different.

You have Tradition and the Bible like Catholics do, and that Tradition is just as weighty. Many branches of Protestantism require you to believe sola scriptura, just like the Catholic Church requires what it requires. All Christian sects have both. It's there, even if it goes unrecognized.
FTACo88-FDT24dad
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AG
Which book of scripture sets forth the table of contents for the canon of scripture?
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