Question on Mary

30,151 Views | 426 Replies | Last: 11 mo ago by Redstone
AgLiving06
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Jabin said:

Of course you can have canon without councils. The church had a canon for hundreds of years prior to the first council. You guys state RCC dogma as if were evidence or even persuasive argument.

And we do not know what was actually debated or decided at those councils because, as far as I know, no records were kept.

Yes. Rome needs to read their accretions back into the early church, because you can hardly be the faith of the apostles if it turns out the early church didn't believe what Rome claims today.

Redstone
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AG
Let's be specific.

Council of Rome (AD 382)
Synod of Hippo (AD 393)
Council of Carthage (AD 397)
Council of Carthage (AD 419)

Related, the meetings of why many Catholic and Orthodox use the term "Apostolic," agreeing as we do on the canon: Council of Florence (1431 to 1449)

These meetings are why the canon is so thoroughly Catholic. These meetings are major reasons WHY Enoch is out, despite being quoted in Jude, and the quite controversial Revelation was in.
Redstone
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AG
In the 300s, Barnabas was included in an important early Bible, Codex Sinaiticus.

Christians thought it important (like much of Scripture, authorship is "school of" and "in honor of")….

Barnabas was widely read.

So, why not for us?

The Apostolic Church excluded it.
Redstone
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AG
The process was very long and argumentative.

In 382, Damasus I held a council at Rome that stated the same canon that Catholics have today.

Innocent I affirmed this list in 405, and it was endorsed by various local councils including Hippo in 393 and Carthage in 397 and 419.

The list was affirmed periodically in history, such as at the Council of Florence -

When Protestants began a major controversy about the authority of certain books (Luther really wanted to cut) - the need to define the canon became more urgent, and in 1546 at Trent was detailed which books the Apostolic Church holds as sacred - inspired by the Word of God, Christ.
Jabin
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Quote:

The Apostolic Church excluded it.
What were the reasons that what you call the "Apostolic Church" excluded it?
Redstone
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AG
A major criteria was some measure of "conformity" to the teachings of the Apostles and their successors, hinted at, for example, in the writings of Clement - which were almost included in the canon.
Jabin
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Redstone said:

A major criteria was some measure of "conformity" to the teachings of the Apostles and their successors, hinted at, for example, in the writings of Clement - which were almost included in the canon.
How do you know? What records exist of what was considered and debated at the early councils?
Redstone
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AG
We have plenty of records, in fragments and in whole. The debaters wanted an audience, generally.

https://shop.catholic.com/the-bible-is-a-catholic-book/
Jabin
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Redstone said:

We have plenty of records, in fragments and in whole. The debaters wanted an audience, generally.

https://shop.catholic.com/the-bible-is-a-catholic-book/
What? You sent me a link to a book for sale. C'mon, if there are records, there has to be something better than that! I'd like to see what factors the RCC folks actually considered.
Redstone
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AG
Sure. Akin's book is noteworthy because of the historical overview.

Let me know if these sources (many links) are not sufficient as easily accessible and detailed resources.

https://www.catholic.com/encyclopedia/canon-of-the-holy-scriptures#iv-the-canon-of-the-new-testament

https://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm

https://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm
Redstone
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AG
A major theme of the debates was:

"Apostolicity as a criterion"
Terminus Est
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AgLiving06 said:

Terminus Est said:

AgLiving06 said:

Terminus Est said:

AgLiving06 said:

Terminus Est said:

Quote:

As our resident EO has pointed out, they don't read Revelation during their Divine Service.


These sorts of throw away lines are why it is hard to take you seriously. You get backed into a corner; so you just say something that while true, isn't germane to the topic at hand.

What is the quote trying to achieve? Are you claiming Revelation is actually not a part of scripture as the Orthodox don't use it in their Liturgy?

How does this speak to Redstone's statements that Revelation being included in Biblical canon, whereas Enoch was not, despite its heavier bonafides as proof of the necessity of the Church? I'll hang up and listen.

It's absolutely true and germane to the discussion.

There is a recognition of tiers among all kinds of groups understand and acknowledge that though books may be "part of the canon," that does not make them "equal."


What does this have to do with whether they're considered scripture or not? Or with the process that deemed them so?

Because it causes significant issues for you and Redstone. Restone's claim is that "the Church established the canon in an active role with councils and what not.

However, history shows that the vast majority of the canon did not require councils or anything of that nature. So then we see that there is a historical understanding, that differs within groups, that some books took longer to be accepted and their acceptance comes with a "second tier status."

Redstone has a problem. He can't point to a mythical church or council that unified the canon. What we see is a church that came to agree with what the the majority of believers already knew to be canon. So the role of the church is one of passive (thank the Lord) and not active
You are incoherent, you brought up the point about the absence of Revelation in Orthodox Liturgy as a red herring so you wouldn't have to answer Redstone's question about why some books were included in the canon and some weren't. Much like my "who is the church" question on another thread, you can't give straight answers; because a straight answer would invalidate your position. You have to make oblique references, say things that while true aren't even tangentially related to the topic at hand, and then of course; declare that no one else is making sense.

So once again, you claim that the "vast majority of the canon didn't require councils"; I would argue that all of the canon required councils because without the councils they're just someone's preferred reading list; but even with that; what about the books that weren't included in the "vast majority"? What about the very books that Redstone has named that you've yet to explain how they became to be canonical?

You have no canon without the councils; it doesn't matter what a majority of people believe; look at the Arian heresy for a great example of where the majority can be in the wrong. This does make me better understand the structure of Protestant belief however; where it's believed that if enough people want something magically it becomes the new canon. Certainly explains the huge liberalization of beliefs concerning contraception, lgbtq issues and divorce within the Protestant sphere that magically coincided with societal liberalization.



I've answered (I think) every question that I've been asked by Redstone.

The problem is that you want me to accept as fact something I will not do...namely that an infallible church or councils or whatever are necessary to have a canon. That's a statement that lacks historical evidence and frankly just doesn't hold up.

So I've answered clearly that a council, defined by some infallible source, was not necessary and not apart of christian history.

Revelation shows that there has been a long tradition of seeing that something can be later accepted into canon by a group (still not this mythical church) and treated in a different manner, while seeing many of the books as having never been disputed.

Your third paragraph is just Roman Catholic nonsense. You don't even attempt to defend it other than nonsensical claims. Not worth a further response.

Last paragraph as well is just nonsense and built on the presupposition that you need a council when the history of the Church disagrees.



I don't think you are capable of accepting facts as such because of what that realization would entail. Your position is that important issues such as dogmas, biblical canon, heresies, were all either confirmed or refuted based on some sort of group consensus without needing a conciliar ruling. This is preposterous since the entire purpose of the early church councils were to make rulings on issues that had questions. There would have been no need for councils, if Christianity had progressed in the way that you claim; with everyone somehow agreeing on everything. This is evidenced by the Arian heresy, as I've mentioned, and with the exclusion and inclusion of certain books in the canon.

I have zero clue how you can have any knowledge of your faith and say that councils are not part of Christian history. It speaks to a faith that begins in the 16th century, and not the 1st. Again, this is evident in the fact that that your beliefs wander all over the map, because they are tied to nothing other than "what most people agree on". Again, this is why you have Homosexually married clergy, approval of birth control, and even abortion; the ELCA calling for abortion to be "legal, regulated and accessible" was an eye opener, it was of course issued by a female "bishop".

You can't just pretend things don't make sense or are nonsense when you can't argue against them.
AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

Let's be specific.

Council of Rome (AD 382)
Synod of Hippo (AD 393)
Council of Carthage (AD 397)
Council of Carthage (AD 419)

Related, the meetings of why many Catholic and Orthodox use the term "Apostolic," agreeing as we do on the canon: Council of Florence (1431 to 1449)

These meetings are why the canon is so thoroughly Catholic. These meetings are major reasons WHY Enoch is out, despite being quoted in Jude, and the quite controversial Revelation was in.

Local councils are local councils.

Council of Florence - Rejected by the EO.

Try again.
Redstone
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AG
Local councils debating and reinforcing Curia organized meetings. Regarding the Council of Florence, minority Eastern disagreement that eventually negated small parts of widespread agreement during 2 decades of formalized communication. AND Catholicism still validates the council, including the Sacraments, AND talks are ongoing, AND there are groups, such as Melkite, that point the way to the future.

The division is real and also minimal by comparison to liturgy and Sacraments.
Redstone
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AG
Regarding the canon and essential interpretation (though not fully, such as some questions of sin) -

Either non-existent or minimal disagreements.

The future is full communion.
AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

In the 300s, Barnabas was included in an important early Bible, Codex Sinaiticus.

Christians thought it important (like much of Scripture, authorship is "school of" and "in honor of")….

Barnabas was widely read.

So, why not for us?

The Apostolic Church excluded it.

You're grasping at straws.

Just because it was included in a single codex doesn't mean much of anything. Many were found with the NT that were ultimately excluded because they either were not widely read or deemed forgeries or authenticity couldn't be confirmed, etc, etc.

That the Holy Spirit was active in protecting the Word of God should not be surprising.
-------

I could use an easy parallel example. Rome claimed the Donation of Constantine was a 4th century document that showed Constantine gave much authority to the Pope.

So by your reasoning, because your "apostolic church" of Rome included it, we should accept it right? It was around for centuries and used as a defense of the Pope.

We, of course, know it was a forgery created centuries after the claim and that it's complete nonsense.
AgLiving06
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Terminus Est said:

AgLiving06 said:

Terminus Est said:

AgLiving06 said:

Terminus Est said:

AgLiving06 said:

Terminus Est said:

Quote:

As our resident EO has pointed out, they don't read Revelation during their Divine Service.


These sorts of throw away lines are why it is hard to take you seriously. You get backed into a corner; so you just say something that while true, isn't germane to the topic at hand.

What is the quote trying to achieve? Are you claiming Revelation is actually not a part of scripture as the Orthodox don't use it in their Liturgy?

How does this speak to Redstone's statements that Revelation being included in Biblical canon, whereas Enoch was not, despite its heavier bonafides as proof of the necessity of the Church? I'll hang up and listen.

It's absolutely true and germane to the discussion.

There is a recognition of tiers among all kinds of groups understand and acknowledge that though books may be "part of the canon," that does not make them "equal."


What does this have to do with whether they're considered scripture or not? Or with the process that deemed them so?

Because it causes significant issues for you and Redstone. Restone's claim is that "the Church established the canon in an active role with councils and what not.

However, history shows that the vast majority of the canon did not require councils or anything of that nature. So then we see that there is a historical understanding, that differs within groups, that some books took longer to be accepted and their acceptance comes with a "second tier status."

Redstone has a problem. He can't point to a mythical church or council that unified the canon. What we see is a church that came to agree with what the the majority of believers already knew to be canon. So the role of the church is one of passive (thank the Lord) and not active
You are incoherent, you brought up the point about the absence of Revelation in Orthodox Liturgy as a red herring so you wouldn't have to answer Redstone's question about why some books were included in the canon and some weren't. Much like my "who is the church" question on another thread, you can't give straight answers; because a straight answer would invalidate your position. You have to make oblique references, say things that while true aren't even tangentially related to the topic at hand, and then of course; declare that no one else is making sense.

So once again, you claim that the "vast majority of the canon didn't require councils"; I would argue that all of the canon required councils because without the councils they're just someone's preferred reading list; but even with that; what about the books that weren't included in the "vast majority"? What about the very books that Redstone has named that you've yet to explain how they became to be canonical?

You have no canon without the councils; it doesn't matter what a majority of people believe; look at the Arian heresy for a great example of where the majority can be in the wrong. This does make me better understand the structure of Protestant belief however; where it's believed that if enough people want something magically it becomes the new canon. Certainly explains the huge liberalization of beliefs concerning contraception, lgbtq issues and divorce within the Protestant sphere that magically coincided with societal liberalization.



I've answered (I think) every question that I've been asked by Redstone.

The problem is that you want me to accept as fact something I will not do...namely that an infallible church or councils or whatever are necessary to have a canon. That's a statement that lacks historical evidence and frankly just doesn't hold up.

So I've answered clearly that a council, defined by some infallible source, was not necessary and not apart of christian history.

Revelation shows that there has been a long tradition of seeing that something can be later accepted into canon by a group (still not this mythical church) and treated in a different manner, while seeing many of the books as having never been disputed.

Your third paragraph is just Roman Catholic nonsense. You don't even attempt to defend it other than nonsensical claims. Not worth a further response.

Last paragraph as well is just nonsense and built on the presupposition that you need a council when the history of the Church disagrees.



I don't think you are capable of accepting facts as such because of what that realization would entail. Your position is that important issues such as dogmas, biblical canon, heresies, were all either confirmed or refuted based on some sort of group consensus without needing a conciliar ruling. This is preposterous since the entire purpose of the early church councils were to make rulings on issues that had questions. There would have been no need for councils, if Christianity had progressed in the way that you claim; with everyone somehow agreeing on everything. This is evidenced by the Arian heresy, as I've mentioned, and with the exclusion and inclusion of certain books in the canon.

I have zero clue how you can have any knowledge of your faith and say that councils are not part of Christian history. It speaks to a faith that begins in the 16th century, and not the 1st. Again, this is evident in the fact that that your beliefs wander all over the map, because they are tied to nothing other than "what most people agree on". Again, this is why you have Homosexually married clergy, approval of birth control, and even abortion; the ELCA calling for abortion to be "legal, regulated and accessible" was an eye opener, it was of course issued by a female "bishop".

You can't just pretend things don't make sense or are nonsense when you can't argue against them.

lol What?

I have no doubt that early church councils were used to try and figure things out. Nothing about that means they were correct, infallible or accurate. That a council met, meant very little.

That doesn't mean there weren't councils that accurately understood and articulated the Word of God...but just claiming "there were councils" is rather meaningless.
Redstone
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AG
How exactly is a document exposed by a Catholic researcher parallel to arguments of canon, debated and decided within councils for that purpose?
Redstone
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AG
Quote:

That the Holy Spirit was active in protecting the Word of God should not be surprising.


Of course it's not surprising. This protection is exactly what I'm arguing for. Once again, the question is method and means - just as Christ used the Apostles and their successors in His missions, …. WHO DECIDED CANON, AND HOW ?
AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

How exactly is a document exposed by a Catholic researcher parallel to arguments of canon, debated and decided within councils for that purpose?

Your claim was things are included or excluded at the will of the "apostolic church," yet we have clear evidence that the "apostolic church" you claim has a credibility issue.

If we know they can knowingly or unknowingly accept forgeries at truth, then clearly we should assume that they are probably making errors elsewhere.

This document was used for centuries as proof of papal authority that was used build the modern Roman Catholic Church. It was entirely built on a lie...one apparently so bad, it's assumed Rome actually knew, but didn't care.

But you want us to believe that this "apostolic church" is somehow infallible. So what you're going to do is try and respond about how narrow the infallibility claim is and not applicable to these kinds of things...which is always convenient that whenever your church gets it wrong, that just wasn't part of the infallibility claim.
AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

Quote:

That the Holy Spirit was active in protecting the Word of God should not be surprising.


Of course it's not surprising. This protection is exactly what I'm arguing for. Once again, the question is method and means - just as Christ used the Apostles and their successors in His missions, …. WHO DECIDED CANON, AND HOW ?

Holy Spirit was the only active party in this.

That the church passively receives the infallible Word of God means the church added nothing to this equation.

Edit: And I'm done for the night. 10pm and need to get ready for bed.
Redstone
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AG
The Church has endured major credibility issues ever since St. Peter, newly ordained priest at the Last Supper, embraced Luciferianism and explicitly denied Our Lord three times. It has a major problem now with Francis, who is truly awful. Nothing new.

The Church is human and supernatural at the same time, in the same space. We always need prayer and repentance.

There was a lot of ugliness and personal attacks as the Apostolic Church codified canon over 400 years. How blessed are we to have this holy product? Let's be glad for it, and for the many priests who exposed forgeries via science, and also gave the world hospitals, universities, and hotels.

Peterine primacy is 2,000 years old.

The Orthodox even accept it….

They just want Antioch / Alexandria / Constantinople included, and their arguments are solid. The future is communion. So, no, let's not be dramatic. I'm happy forgeries are exposed, and also happy when science validates, as it has with the Shroud of Turin.
https://texags.com/forums/15/topics/3187078

"Infallible" is very narrow. Here's a good exercise: when was the last declaration? What did that look like? It's very different from the nonsense many Bishops, including Francis, spew. The Holy Spirit protects, thank God.

AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

The Church has endured major credibility issues ever since St. Peter, newly ordained priest at the Last Supper, embraced Luciferianism and explicitly denied Our Lord three times. It has a major problem now with Francis, who is truly awful. Nothing new.

The Church is human and supernatural at the same time, in the same space. We always need prayer and repentance.

There was a lot of ugliness and personal attacks as the Apostolic Church codified canon over 400 years. How blessed are we to have this holy product? Let's be glad for it, and for the many priests who exposed forgeries via science, and also gave the world hospitals, universities, and hotels.

Peterine primacy is 2,000 years old.

The Orthodox even accept it….

They just want Antioch / Alexandria / Constantinople included, and their arguments are solid. The future is communion. So, no, let's not be dramatic. I'm happy forgeries are exposed, and also happy when science validates, as it has with the Shroud of Turin.
https://texags.com/forums/15/topics/3187078

"Infallible" is very narrow. Here's a good exercise: when was the last declaration? What did that look like? It's very different from the nonsense many Bishops, including Francis, spew. The Holy Spirit protects, thank God.



Do you get tired of moving the goalposts.

Peter's primacy is irrelevant. Like the Orthodox, and probably most every Protestant group, we accept that Peter was the Head Apostle. Rome doesn't have some unique claim to Peter in this regard.

The accretion is that somehow this equates to Peter having the charism of infallibility or that Rome somehow has infallibility. This claim is the biggest scandal of the church and caused more division than the Reformation ever could have.

Infallibility being narrow is a function of Rome being wrong so many times that they have to change the definition. I checked and it does not appear that Rome even publishes an official list...because they need an out in case they get shown to be wrong, as we've seen in the past. I've shown enough in the past that statements that were almost certainly meant to be "from the seat of Peter" were so horrific that they had to be brushed aside.

So infallibility is very narrow because it has to be or Rome would have less credibility in its claims than it currently does.
Redstone
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AG
The concept and reality is similar, abstractly, to annulment: a declaration of what exists.

The dogmas of St. Mary have been taught for 2,000 years by Apostolic, East and West.
….since proclaimed by the First Vatican Council in 1870, invoked once in defining a dogma ex cathedra that all Catholics must believe.

Pope Pius XII declared that all Catholics (including us, today) must accept "that the Immaculate Mother of God, the ever Virgin Mary, having completed the course of her earthly life, was assumed body and soul into heavenly glory."

This is the fourth of the Marian dogmas of the Church. Codified after 2,000 years - I suppose we tend to "think" in centuries, which is healthy.

Weaponized ambiguity, including by many Catholics, is lamentable. I hope our leaders return to clarity.
Faithful Ag
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Lots to chime in on here ~
AgLiving06 said:

It's absolutely true and germane to the discussion.

There is a recognition of tiers among all kinds of groups understand and acknowledge that though books may be "part of the canon," that does not make them "equal."
This is where is gets very dicey for your position. You attempt to nuance and qualify your position as if it was the clear, historical position of Christians and that the "disputed books" are sort of scripture but when push comes to shove you side with the position of not equal to Scripture so NOT SCRIPTURE.

Of course you admit the books were in the Bible for more than 1,000 years but they were not actually IN the Bible. They were just printed in the Bible but everyone just knew they were not Scripture because Jerome used the word "apocrypha" to describe them before he translated them and included them with the real Scriptures in the same Bible.

--------------------

AgLiving06 said:

Redstone said:

Seriously, why are you avoiding this ESSENTIAL meta question?

WHO decided Revelation was in and Enoch out, and WHEN? What was the process?

"essential meta question." Who decided it? God did! Why is that complicated. The Holy Spirit guides and protects the Church.
Your answer here begs the question of HOW and WHEN did GOD decide Revelation was in and Enoch out? What was the process and how do WE KNOW was GOD decided? Please be specific with this answer.

AgLiving06 said:

That Rome tries to take authority from God and give it to man is always something that is just baffling to me. Would you really want man acting our own? What a terrifying thought.
This is where your preconceived animosity toward Rome interferes with your ability to be objective, and is why you are unable to provide a direct, logical, coherent response to what are simple, straightforward questions.

Furthermore, you fail to see that it is YOUR position (not the Catholic or Orthodox) that places YOU in the terrifying position of relying on the actions of man acting on their own.

AgLiving06 said:

And before you try to claim that's what you mean, you don't get it both ways. Either man and these councils acted actively of their own free will, or it is God who's will was active. It can't be both. I'll always default to God's will.
Jesus promised he would send the Holy Spirit to guide the CHURCH. The church is comprised of fallible men. In the same way the Holy Spirit guided the men leading the church who wrote Scriptures (Paul, Luke, Matthew, etc.) and protected them from error (infallibility), the Holy Spirit guided the men leading the same church to collect, discern, and recognize which of these writings would be included in the Bible and protected them from error in that process (infallibility).

----------------------------

AgLiving06 said:

Redstone said:

Yes, the founder via St. Peter and St. John the leader of His ordained priests at the Pascal celebration, the Mass, before His holy passion did exist before the Church.
So your claim is that the Church existed before Jesus established the church? It's a bold claim, but I guess it's the hole you dig when you need an authoritative church to exist.
Yet another example of your twisting the meaning of what others are saying. Jesus established his NT Church ON Peter and the Apostles and through them the NT Church came to be. It was the precise reason Jesus chose them to follow him. Jesus breathed on them commanding them to receive the Holy Spirit. So yes, Peter and the Apostles did exist before the NT Church was born so to speak.

AgLiving06 said:

Simply put, the Word of God existed before the Church. The Scriptures are the Word of God guided and protected by the Holy Spirit. So the Word of God existed prior to the Church. That the accidental form came into existence later does not change that.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God; all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.

Yes, the Scriptures are the Word of God. However, the Scriptures are not the complete and exhaustive Word of God. The issue I have with your position is that you conflate the two as if ONLY the Scriptures are the Word of God and nothing else or nothing more. You are confining the Word of God to the Scriptures alone. You are in error by doing so.

---------------------------

AgLiving06 said:

Because it causes significant issues for you and Redstone. Restone's claim is that "the Church established the canon in an active role with councils and what not.
This is not what Redstone has claimed. You are putting words into Redstone's mouth. You have twisted his words to mean something slightly different in an attempt to make a point. Typical straw-man.

Redstone has made the case that in the same way God guided and protected the process of writing Scripture, God also guided and protected the process of collecting and recognizing Scripture. All of this from beginning to end was done THROUGH the Church, not by individual men.

AgLiving06 said:

However, history shows that the vast majority of the canon did not require councils or anything of that nature. So then we see that there is a historical understanding, that differs within groups, that some books took longer to be accepted and their acceptance comes with a "second tier status."
Are you saying that some of the cannon required councils or something similar? Again, WHO decides/decided? Why isn't Enoch considered Scripture? It was treated as Scripture by many in the early days, and was referenced by Jesus himself THE WORD. How is it that Enoch can be excluded from the canon using your "historical" view?

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AgLiving06 said:

Yes, we agree that Jesus Christ is the Word. Kind of the point of John 1.

But to claim that the Scriptures are not the Word of God, and were not seen as such in the early church is just nonsense.

NOBODY on this board, Catholic or Protestant, has claimed, said or implied that the Scriptures are NOT the Word of God.

The debate we are having is the disagreement on WHAT is Scripture. The Protestant position is the most restrictive and rejects books currently and historically held as Scripture by both Catholics and Orthodox going back more than 1,500 years. The support offered for rejecting these books is tenuous at best, and your need to avoid the necessary implications of your position (such Enoch, Revelation, etc.) is obvious.
AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

The concept and reality is similar, abstractly, to annulment: a declaration of what exists.

The dogmas of St. Mary have been taught for 2,000 years by Apostolic, East and West.
….since proclaimed by the First Vatican Council in 1870, invoked once in defining a dogma ex cathedra that all Catholics must believe.

Pope Pius XII declared that all Catholics (including us, today) must accept "that the Immaculate Mother of God, the ever Virgin Mary, having completed the course of her earthly life, was assumed body and soul into heavenly glory."

This is the fourth of the Marian dogmas of the Church. Codified after 2,000 years - I suppose we tend to "think" in centuries, which is healthy.

Weaponized ambiguity, including by many Catholics, is lamentable. I hope our leaders return to clarity.
The "dogmas of Mary" were absolutely not taught for 2,000 years. I believe our resident Orthodox would also disagree with that assertion.

Those claims also were almost certainly completely foreign to the earliest church fathers, and instead took centuries to develop.

For example, in this video, Gavin Ortlund looks at Roman Catholic Scholars to see what they say (starting at 9 minutes or so).



So your claim, while I think is sincere on your part, doesn't stand up to any scrutiny.
Redstone
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AG
1. The Assumption was assumed for 1,500 years. During that time, how many writings can you find against it?

2. St. Epiphanius' Panarion, Refutation of All Heresies, written about 350

"Like the bodies of the saints, however, she has been held in honor for her character and understanding. And if I should say anything more in her praise, she is like Elijah, who was virgin from his mother's womb, always remained so, and was taken up, but has not seen death (Panarion 79)."
AgLiving06
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Quote:

This is where is gets very dicey for your position. You attempt to nuance and qualify your position as if it was the clear, historical position of Christians and that the "disputed books" are sort of scripture but when push comes to shove you side with the position of not equal to Scripture so NOT SCRIPTURE.

Of course you admit the books were in the Bible for more than 1,000 years but they were not actually IN the Bible. They were just printed in the Bible but everyone just knew they were not Scripture because Jerome used the word "apocrypha" to describe them before he translated them and included them with the real Scriptures in the same Bible.

Nothing dicey about speaking facts.

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Your answer here begs the question of HOW and WHEN did GOD decide Revelation was in and Enoch out? What was the process and how do WE KNOW was GOD decided? Please be specific with this answer.

These are the questions you're concerned with? Are we debating omnipotence or omnipresence or omniscience?

Did Jesus only become God when Peter finally realized it in Matthew 16?

That man in our fallen state takes time to recognize the Word of God, says nothing of God and everything about man.

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This is where your preconceived animosity toward Rome interferes with your ability to be objective, and is why you are unable to provide a direct, logical, coherent response to what are simple, straightforward questions.

Furthermore, you fail to see that it is YOUR position (not the Catholic or Orthodox) that places YOU in the terrifying position of relying on the actions of man acting on their own.

"preconceived animosity." No I don't have that. I like many Roman Catholic apologists and see value in their work. What I see on this forum a lot though, from Roman Catholics is a desire to ignore actual Church history in favor of a Rome washed history. Claims such as Redstones that "XYZ have been believed for 2,000 years" right up until those pesky Reformers should be challenged when they are wrong.

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Jesus promised he would send the Holy Spirit to guide the CHURCH. The church is comprised of fallible men. In the same way the Holy Spirit guided the men leading the church who wrote Scriptures (Paul, Luke, Matthew, etc.) and protected them from error (infallibility), the Holy Spirit guided the men leading the same church to collect, discern, and recognize which of these writings would be included in the Bible and protected them from error in that process (infallibility).

If you just stopped at the bolded, we'd be in complete agreement.

But you have to try and sneak in that somehow, man can infallibly discern anything. We can't. There is only one infallible source and it's Scripture. Man is full corrupted by sin and won't be able to truly discern until the next lifetime.

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Yet another example of your twisting the meaning of what others are saying. Jesus established his NT Church ON Peter and the Apostles and through them the NT Church came to be. It was the precise reason Jesus chose them to follow him. Jesus breathed on them commanding them to receive the Holy Spirit. So yes, Peter and the Apostles did exist before the NT Church was born so to speak

I didn't twist anything.

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This is not what Redstone has claimed. You are putting words into Redstone's mouth. You have twisted his words to mean something slightly different in an attempt to make a point. Typical straw-man.

And yet Redstone never denied it...just you.

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Are you saying that some of the cannon required councils or something similar? Again, WHO decides/decided? Why isn't Enoch considered Scripture? It was treated as Scripture by many in the early days, and was referenced by Jesus himself THE WORD. How is it that Enoch can be excluded from the canon using your "historical" view?

You can read the back and forth with Redstone. I'm not going to repeat it for you.

AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

1. The Assumption was assumed for 1,500 years. During that time, how many writings can you find against it?

2. St. Epiphanius' Panarion, Refutation of All Heresies, written about 350

"Like the bodies of the saints, however, she has been held in honor for her character and understanding. And if I should say anything more in her praise, she is like Elijah, who was virgin from his mother's womb, always remained so, and was taken up, but has not seen death (Panarion 79)."

You clearly didn't watch the video. Scholars point out that this was not some early church believe, but maybe something we see in the 4th century at the earliest.

Ephiphanius...I can see why you don't want to share the whole quote

"Like the bodies of the saints, however, she has been held in honor for her character and understanding. And if I should say anything more in her praise [she is] like Elijah, who was virgin frmo his mother's womb, always remained so, and was taken up and has not seen death. She is like John who leaned on the Lord's breast, "the disciple whom Jesus loved." She is like St. Thecla; and Mary is still more honored than she, because of the providence vouchsafed her."

Your claim is significantly less appealing when you see the whole quote.

Ephiphanius does not appear to be claiming, that what happened to Elijah also happened to Mary, because then things get real weird with the description of John. Instead Ephiphanius is talking of their faith and godliness as comparable to other godly people (hence a reference to St. Thecla).
Redstone
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AG
Not weird in the slightest. Affection is well established in Catholic tradition, especially in my favorite, Bl. Anne Catherine Emmerich visions.

If you don't respect the archeological evidence (residences of Anatolia and Jerusalem) some sources in Emmerich, and Syriac fragments from the 2nd Century, and a long tradition of the assumption, and the lack of writings about it, which speaks loudly (especially given that Gnostics also had this belief), and the Pseudo-Melito, an influential text of the Latin Church….

That's fine. But let's not pretend like the case isn't extremely strong the Assumption was assumed, so to speak.
Redstone
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AG
Regarding the "word of God" -

I've stated the Logos Incarnate is the literal Word of God. Like Muslims view the Koran - from God's speech to our ears.

The Bible is a holy product of the Apostolic Church, which came first, codified after 3 centuries of intense debate.

It is the word of God - holy texts to be read and studied in such a context. To us from men as Christ used His followers in His missions.

It is NOT like Muslims view the Koran.
Faithful Ag
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https://www.youtube.com/live/Bq1z44GVBcA?feature=shared


Gavin Ortlund discussing Marian Dogmas on Reason & Theology.
The Banned
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So man can't infallibly determine anything. So you can't know for sure that your current denomination of choice is right? And you can't infallibly know the Catholic Church is right? The scriptures you will cite will have opposing interpretations. We can't infallibly know which of those interpretations are correct? We're just left to guess?
Terminus Est
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AgLiving06
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I don't have fancy pictures of words. Here we go though.

I'll start by pointing out that your quote is from Against Heresies, Book III, chapter 4. I wonder what the first couple chapters say?


Chapter 1:
Quote:

1. We have learned from none others the plan of our salvation, than from those through whom the Gospel has come down to us, which they did at one time proclaim in public, and, at a later period, by the will of God, handed down to us in the Scriptures, to be the ground and pillar of our faith. For it is unlawful to assert that they preached before they possessed "perfect knowledge," as some do even venture to say, boasting themselves as improvers of the apostles. For, after our Lord rose from the dead, [the apostles] were invested with power from on high when the Holy Spirit came down [upon them], were filled from all [His gifts], and had perfect knowledge: they departed to the ends of the earth, preaching the glad tidings of the good things [sent] from God to us, and proclaiming the peace of heaven to men, who indeed do all equally and individually possess the Gospel of God. Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching at Rome, and laying the foundations of the Church. After their departure, Mark, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter. Luke also, the companion of Paul, recorded in a book the Gospel preached by him. Afterwards, John, the disciple of the Lord, who also had leaned upon His breast, did himself publish a Gospel during his residence at Ephesus in Asia.

Chapter 2:
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1. When, however, they are confuted from the Scriptures, they turn round and accuse these same Scriptures, as if they were not correct, nor of authority, and [assert] that they are ambiguous, and that the truth cannot be extracted from them by those who are ignorant of tradition. For [they allege] that the truth was not delivered by means of written documents, but viv voce: wherefore also Paul declared, "But we speak wisdom among those that are perfect, but not the wisdom of this world."663 And this wisdom each one of them alleges to be the fiction of his own inventing, forsooth; so that, according to their idea, the truth properly resides at one time in Valentinus, at another in Marcion, at another in Cerinthus, then afterwards in Basilides, or has even been indifferently in any other opponent, who could speak nothing pertaining to salvation. For every one of these men, being altogether of a perverse disposition, depraving the system of truth, is not ashamed to preach himself.


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2. But, again, when we refer them to that tradition which originates from the apostles, [and] which is preserved by means of the succession of presbyters in the Churches, they object to tradition, saying that they themselves are wiser not merely than the presbyters, but even than the apostles, because they have discovered the unadulterated truth. For [they maintain] that the apostles intermingled the things of the law with the words of the Saviour; and that not the apostles alone, but even the Lord Himself, spoke as at one time from the Demiurge, at another from the intermediate place, and yet again from the Pleroma, but that they themselves, indubitably, unsulliedly, and purely, have knowledge of the hidden mystery: this is, indeed, to blaspheme their Creator after a most impudent manner! It comes to this, therefore, that these men do now consent neither to Scripture nor to tradition.


I'll just say that chapter 2 makes an interesting point related to this conversation.



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You may know or not that your quote from Irenaeus does not start with your quote, but instead starts with the following:

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1. Since therefore we have such proofs, it is not necessary to seek the truth among others which it is easy to obtain from the Church; since the apostles, like a rich man [depositing his money] in a bank, lodged in her hands most copiously all things pertaining to the truth: so that every man, whosoever will, can draw from her the water of life

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So in the end, Irenaeus is pointing out that apostolic tradition is not merely the layings, but instead apostolic tradition is related to the correctly handling of the tradition that came from the Apostles and was written down at the will of God.
 
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