Question on Mary

30,196 Views | 426 Replies | Last: 11 mo ago by Redstone
jkag89
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I will agree with this much this blog post
Quote:

What You Experienced at Fatima Depended on Your Faith
I don't necessarily disagree with the assertion that how one would perceive an unknown is based upon one's world view. Rolled my eyes when it connects UAP and ET to fairies and it lost all credibility trying to connect it to St. Francis of Assisi's stigmata.
NowhereMan
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Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Zobel
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AG
Good thing the Christian faith didn't come out of the Bible then, eh?
FTACo88-FDT24dad
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AG
TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?
BluHorseShu
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AG
FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?
We now what books are inspired to be in the bible because the are in the Bible, duh. Seriously though, people really discount the first Christians, the Apostles and how they passed on the faith after Christ's resurrection. So if we acknowledge their teachings handed down, then we should consider the veneration they had for Mary since the beginning. Christ even told them ...'Behold, your mother'.
AgLiving06
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FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."


- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."
PabloSerna
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AG
What of apostolic tradition?
AgLiving06
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It's a term that multiple Christian church groups use to justify their differences from every other Christian group...
one MEEN Ag
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AG
TheGreatEscape said:

I'm currently reading "Mary" by Catholic answers.
I have no problem with saying that Mary was the Mother of God. But I do not pray to dead people, even Mary that is blessed among women and full of grace.
Who says shes dead. The saints are alive. And why the issue with praying for those who have passed on? They can use your prayers and you can use theirs.

One of the core tenants of how God built this world is that he shares his authority. Its called a divine council for a reason. Asking for their prayers and praying for their soul doesn't detract anything from God.
BluHorseShu
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

It's a term that multiple Christian church groups use to justify their differences from every other Christian group...
Another definition is that its what the apostles and disciples of Christ handed down in there teachings of scripture. It was one Christian Church for very long time. The justifications came later when everyone else wanted to start their own denominations and try to justify they were the correct ones.
AgLiving06
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BluHorseShu said:

AgLiving06 said:

It's a term that multiple Christian church groups use to justify their differences from every other Christian group...
Another definition is that its what the apostles and disciples of Christ handed down in there teachings of scripture. It was one Christian Church for very long time. The justifications came later when everyone else wanted to start their own denominations and try to justify they were the correct ones.

That's fine, but the real question becomes is it a realistic definition?

You claim Christianity "was one Christian Church for a very long time," and this is true...but what does that actually translate to in terms of "apostolic tradition?"

Is the claim that the "apostolic tradition" Rome was the universal belief during that time? No, this is not a statement that can be affirmed.

Is the claim that the Bishop of Rome has supremacy and the ability to speak infallibly? No, this is not a statement that can be affirm.

Is the claim that the Rome view of Mary, since this thread was initially about Mary, the widely held belief historically? Per the EO on this thread, no.

So on and so forth.

So your left with a decision. Do you claim that the "one Christian Church" had this robust "apostolic tradition" that everybody believe and was handed down, which is contrary to history...or do you claim there was "one Christian Church" that had a much more narrow agreement on tradition and that much of the so called "apostolic tradition" spoken of today are accretions that split the church?


BluHorseShu
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

BluHorseShu said:

AgLiving06 said:

It's a term that multiple Christian church groups use to justify their differences from every other Christian group...
Another definition is that its what the apostles and disciples of Christ handed down in there teachings of scripture. It was one Christian Church for very long time. The justifications came later when everyone else wanted to start their own denominations and try to justify they were the correct ones.

That's fine, but the real question becomes is it a realistic definition?

You claim Christianity "was one Christian Church for a very long time," and this is true...but what does that actually translate to in terms of "apostolic tradition?"

Is the claim that the "apostolic tradition" Rome was the universal belief during that time? No, this is not a statement that can be affirmed.

Is the claim that the Bishop of Rome has supremacy and the ability to speak infallibly? No, this is not a statement that can be affirm.

Is the claim that the Rome view of Mary, since this thread was initially about Mary, the widely held belief historically? Per the EO on this thread, no.

So on and so forth.

So your left with a decision. Do you claim that the "one Christian Church" had this robust "apostolic tradition" that everybody believe and was handed down, which is contrary to history...or do you claim there was "one Christian Church" that had a much more narrow agreement on tradition and that much of the so called "apostolic tradition" spoken of today are accretions that split the church?



I don't agree on the 'can't be affirmed'. The first four generations are affirmed by Paul to Timothy in 2 Tim. 2:2. Paul was conveying the necessity of passing down and ensuring the Apostolic tradition after the last Apostle died.
FTACo88-FDT24dad
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."


- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."
.


You did a really nice job of evading almost every question and offering a non-responsive response. That's certainly your right. I never said anything about Rome. I'm asking for answers to questions that should be easy for someone who bases their faith on the Bible alone. I don't see why this is controversial.

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

But let's just forget all that. Let's just ask the more important question: how do you know the Bible is the inspired word of God? Can you prove that?

But it seems that in the absence of a divinely protected authority to determine the canon of the Bible, basing a religion on the Bible alone is inherently suspect, never mind that it is a logically incoherent idea because the Bible in any form never says anything about it being the sole rule of faith and it certainly doesn't contain its own table of contents and it doesn't interpret itself.

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

I'll just re-urge the same questions and look forward to an actual response to each question. Thanks in advance.
Terminus Est
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I think I have gone through 4 user names during the time this thread has been going
Faithful Ag
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FDT24dad asked NOT you but trailertrash a series of questions and you are correct that these are not "gotcha" questions - but yet you STILL fail to attempt to answer. Why is that? Instead of even attempting to provide an answer you go right into what WE can or cannot argue according to you. You have obviously studied the issues at hand, which makes your inability to have a real dialog all the more frustrating. Can you defend and support your positions without putting words in everyone else's mouths?
AgLiving06 said:

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.
We absolutely can claim that the Bible was handed down to us by God's chosen people through God's authoritative church. The OT comes to us through the Jews from Moses up to Jesus. Jesus fulfilled the OT and gave His authority to Peter and the Apostles, promised the guidance and protection of the Holy Spirit, and established His visible and authoritative NT Church. In a very real sense it is through the SAME Church that we received the Bible, both OT and NT. The institutions are not different bodies but one continuous Church. So, I would disagree with you the the OT existed prior to "Rome".
AgLiving06 said:

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.
Again you fail to grasp the whole point. Nobody is claiming "Rome" is responsible for all things Christian and/or somehow replaces the Holy Spirit. However, Jesus established His visible and authoritative Church on Peter and the Apostles, and it was through these chosen men (the Church) that we have received their writings. It was through this same Church that the writings were collected and then either included in the Bible or excluded from the Bible. This entire process was guided by the Holy Spirit, and this Church is the visible and Apostolic Church going all the way back to Peter, who was appointed by Jesus. Without the church, the writings of Paul, Matthew, Luke, & Peter would not be meaningful and would be unknown to us today.
AgLiving06 said:

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.
The fact remains that the "disputed and apocryphal" books are/were included in the Bible (East & West) from the time of Hippo & Carthage, translated and included by Jerome in the vulgate, remained after the 1054 Schism, etc. etc. etc. These "disputed" books are now rejected as Scripture by today's Protestants and the question we are asking WHO today has that authority?? What individual or what body rightfully holds that power and authority?



AgLiving06 said:

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."
This is not an answer. Sorry. The Holy Spirit cannot lie and is not confused. The Holy Spirit was sent to guide the Church into all truth. This church includes the 7 "disputed" books in our Bible. Protestants exclude them. Are you saying the Holy Spirit can be divided and lead Christians into different truths?

AgLiving06 said:

- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.
What are you trying to say here because you are not making a coherent point?

AgLiving06 said:

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."

Again you deflect and avoid answering a straightforward, direct question. The authority of the Catholic Church comes from Jesus Christ. He gave this authority to his Apostles and appointed Peter as their chief. This authority is supported by the Apostolic Traditions of the church and is demonstrated from the very beginning, even before the first word of the NT was written. Yes, the Scriptures testify to this authority and support it, but the Church existed before the NT. Without the Church and her authority it would not be possible to have the NT.


(Edit to change that the original question was addressed to trailertrash and not AgLiving06)
AgLiving06
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Faithful Ag said:

FDT24dad asked you a series of questions and you are correct that these are not "gotcha" questions - but yet you STILL fail to attempt to answer. Why is that? Instead of even attempting to provide an answer you go right into what WE can or cannot argue according to you. You have obviously studied the issues at hand, which makes your inability to have a real dialog all the more frustrating. Can you defend and support your positions without putting words in everyone else's mouths?
AgLiving06 said:

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.
We absolutely can claim that the Bible was handed down to us by God's chosen people through God's authoritative church. The OT comes to us through the Jews from Moses up to Jesus. Jesus fulfilled the OT and gave His authority to Peter and the Apostles, promised the guidance and protection of the Holy Spirit, and established His visible and authoritative NT Church. In a very real sense it is through the SAME Church that we received the Bible, both OT and NT. The institutions are not different bodies but one continuous Church. So, I would disagree with you the the OT existed prior to "Rome".
AgLiving06 said:

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.
Again you fail to grasp the whole point. Nobody is claiming "Rome" is responsible for all things Christian and/or somehow replaces the Holy Spirit. However, Jesus established His visible and authoritative Church on Peter and the Apostles, and it was through these chosen men (the Church) that we have received their writings. It was through this same Church that the writings were collected and then either included in the Bible or excluded from the Bible. This entire process was guided by the Holy Spirit, and this Church is the visible and Apostolic Church going all the way back to Peter, who was appointed by Jesus. Without the church, the writings of Paul, Matthew, Luke, & Peter would not be meaningful and would be unknown to us today.
AgLiving06 said:

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.
The fact remains that the "disputed and apocryphal" books are/were included in the Bible (East & West) from the time of Hippo & Carthage, translated and included by Jerome in the vulgate, remained after the 1054 Schism, etc. etc. etc. These "disputed" books are now rejected as Scripture by today's Protestants and the question we are asking WHO today has that authority?? What individual or what body rightfully holds that power and authority?



AgLiving06 said:

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."
This is not an answer. Sorry. The Holy Spirit cannot lie and is not confused. The Holy Spirit was sent to guide the Church into all truth. This church includes the 7 "disputed" books in our Bible. Protestants exclude them. Are you saying the Holy Spirit can be divided and lead Christians into different truths?

AgLiving06 said:

- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.
What are you trying to say here because you are not making a coherent point?

AgLiving06 said:

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."

Again you deflect and avoid answering a straightforward, direct question. The authority of the Catholic Church comes from Jesus Christ. He gave this authority to his Apostles and appointed Peter as their chief. This authority is supported by the Apostolic Traditions of the church and is demonstrated from the very beginning, even before the first word of the NT was written. Yes, the Scriptures testify to this authority and support it, but the Church existed before the NT. Without the Church and her authority it would not be possible to have the NT.

He didn't ask the question to me. He asked them to someone named "Trailertrash." Probably would be a good idea to check that before accusing somebody as you did.
AgLiving06
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FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

AgLiving06 said:

FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."


- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."
.


You did a really nice job of evading almost every question and offering a non-responsive response. That's certainly your right. I never said anything about Rome. I'm asking for answers to questions that should be easy for someone who bases their faith on the Bible alone. I don't see why this is controversial.

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

But let's just forget all that. Let's just ask the more important question: how do you know the Bible is the inspired word of God? Can you prove that?

But it seems that in the absence of a divinely protected authority to determine the canon of the Bible, basing a religion on the Bible alone is inherently suspect, never mind that it is a logically incoherent idea because the Bible in any form never says anything about it being the sole rule of faith and it certainly doesn't contain its own table of contents and it doesn't interpret itself.

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

I'll just re-urge the same questions and look forward to an actual response to each question. Thanks in advance.

First, to be clear, you didn't ask me the questions. I responded to them, and I did not evade on any of them.

You made claims. I pointed out they were problematic claims.

But further to the point, It's not evading the question to point out the flaws with the questions. Further, it's also not evading the question, if your position is they are questions, to add significant more context to the very question itself.

Quote:

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

The problem is your question is framed with the answer you want in mind, i.e. Pope.

But the simpliest answer is 2 Timothy 3 puts the Scriptures on unique footing. "16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. "


2 Peter 1 also provides that Scripture is unique: 19 And we have the prophetic word more fully confirmed, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts, 20 knowing this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture comes from someone's own interpretation. 21 For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.


Those are unique claims applied to the Scriptures.

But more to the point, if your desire is to ask questions, how hard have you looked into the Protestant claims of Sola Scriptura? What books have you wrestled with?

Quote:

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

Taking the position that you need someone to interpret for you changes nothing though. I can simply ask "How do you know the person who is the Pope/bishop/pastor isn't from Satan? You can apply your reasoning to literally anything and all come to the same conclusion. This is actually an argument as to why Sola Scriptura is so important because it says that traditions or bishops or pastors may speak God's word, but we only hold the Scripture as infallible and as the source that norms everything else.

Quote:

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

Again, this is where you betray your intentions in the "just questions" claim. Nowhere did I say my "foundation is the bible alone is necessary." To make this claim is to not understand Protestantism at all.

Scripture is the only infallible rule and source that norms everything else. But to say we dismiss other aspects of Church history is incorrect. Protestants in a lot of ways, are more faithful to the history of the Church because we are willing to see all aspects of it and avoid claims that are relatively easily disproven.

Faithful Ag
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AgLiving06 said:

He didn't ask the question to me. He asked them to someone named "Trailertrash." Probably would be a good idea to check that before accusing somebody as you did.
And your point? You non-responded to the questions he asked directly to "Trailertrash" and I responded to your non-response. I'll admit that I thought his original question was directed to you but it changes nothing meaningful. You jumped in on a question asked to someone else, and I responded to you. Pretty typical on a message board..

Do you have anything you would like to say in response?


I will correct my post for accuracy:
Faithful Ag said:


FDTdad asked NOT you but Trailertrash a series of questions that AgLiving06 responded to stating etc etc, etc,
Faithful Ag
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AgLiving06 said:

First, to be clear, you didn't ask me the questions. I responded to them, and I did not evade on any of them.

You made claims. I pointed out they were problematic claims.

But further to the point, It's not evading the question to point out the flaws with the questions. Further, it's also not evading the question, if your position is they are questions, to add significant more context to the very question itself.
To be clear, I know this post was made in response to FDT. I think the difficulty I (and probably others) have with the way you engage on these threads is that most of the time you rarely directly answer, defend, or support your own positions. Your tendency is to focus on what you think is wrong with our view, and you are constantly telling us how our positions are flawed/problematic but you don't really back up your attacks with the why. In your mind you might think you are but you are not. When someone asks me a question I do my best to provide a legit response to the issue in question supporting my view, and then I will ask others questions in an attempt to better understand their view or to help drill in on what I think are flaws with their posting.

It comes across as a giant straw-man. You tend to put words and meaning into other people's mouths that or change the fundamental meaning of the question being asked. When someone asks a question you jump in and attempt to "add more context to the very question itself". It's frustrating because it shifts the conversation in ways that are not what the OP or person asking the question intends. We then have to spend more time and energy trying to undo your changing our meaning or inserting your flawed context and conclusions that it becomes very circular and confusing.

If you would stay on your paper and speak for yourself - and leave others to speak for themselves and ask the questions that they want to ask and HOW they want to ask them - it would make conversations with you much more productive. I think you have done a lot of research and I think you have a lot of perspective that I would like to learn more from and better understand (which is why I try to engage with you). BUT I always come away frustrated because I feel like your always putting words in my mouth, shifting meanings and telling me what I should be asking or what's wrong with my questions INSTEAD of just responding directly and then asking me questions that would help get to whatever point you thing is important.
AgLiving06
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Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

First, to be clear, you didn't ask me the questions. I responded to them, and I did not evade on any of them.

You made claims. I pointed out they were problematic claims.

But further to the point, It's not evading the question to point out the flaws with the questions. Further, it's also not evading the question, if your position is they are questions, to add significant more context to the very question itself.
To be clear, I know this post was made in response to FDT. I think the difficulty I (and probably others) have with the way you engage on these threads is that most of the time you rarely directly answer, defend, or support your own positions. Your tendency is to focus on what you think is wrong with our view, and you are constantly telling us how our positions are flawed/problematic but you don't really back up your attacks with the why. In your mind you might think you are but you are not. When someone asks me a question I do my best to provide a legit response to the issue in question supporting my view, and then I will ask others questions in an attempt to better understand their view or to help drill in on what I think are flaws with their posting.

It comes across as a giant straw-man. You tend to put words and meaning into other people's mouths that or change the fundamental meaning of the question being asked. When someone asks a question you jump in and attempt to "add more context to the very question itself". It's frustrating because it shifts the conversation in ways that are not what the OP or person asking the question intends. We then have to spend more time and energy trying to undo your changing our meaning or inserting your flawed context and conclusions that it becomes very circular and confusing.

If you would stay on your paper and speak for yourself - and leave others to speak for themselves and ask the questions that they want to ask and HOW they want to ask them - it would make conversations with you much more productive. I think you have done a lot of research and I think you have a lot of perspective that I would like to learn more from and better understand (which is why I try to engage with you). BUT I always come away frustrated because I feel like your always putting words in my mouth, shifting meanings and telling me what I should be asking or what's wrong with my questions INSTEAD of just responding directly and then asking me questions that would help get to whatever point you thing is important.


I still have yet to respond to you. Why do you keep interjecting yourself into the conversation as if I or anybody else is responding to you?
Faithful Ag
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We are on a message board. This is how it works. Nobody is forcing you to do anything against your will here.

I would point out that earlier in this thread you and I have had a significant back and forth on the issue currently being discussed. It started when YOU responded to a post I made in response to someone else.
Pretty much the same exact thing you are apparently now frustrated about now?
FTACo88-FDT24dad
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

AgLiving06 said:

FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."


- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."
.


You did a really nice job of evading almost every question and offering a non-responsive response. That's certainly your right. I never said anything about Rome. I'm asking for answers to questions that should be easy for someone who bases their faith on the Bible alone. I don't see why this is controversial.

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

But let's just forget all that. Let's just ask the more important question: how do you know the Bible is the inspired word of God? Can you prove that?

But it seems that in the absence of a divinely protected authority to determine the canon of the Bible, basing a religion on the Bible alone is inherently suspect, never mind that it is a logically incoherent idea because the Bible in any form never says anything about it being the sole rule of faith and it certainly doesn't contain its own table of contents and it doesn't interpret itself.

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

I'll just re-urge the same questions and look forward to an actual response to each question. Thanks in advance.

First, to be clear, you didn't ask me the questions. I responded to them, and I did not evade on any of them.

You made claims. I pointed out they were problematic claims.

But further to the point, It's not evading the question to point out the flaws with the questions. Further, it's also not evading the question, if your position is they are questions, to add significant more context to the very question itself.

Quote:

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

The problem is your question is framed with the answer you want in mind, i.e. Pope.

But the simpliest answer is 2 Timothy 3 puts the Scriptures on unique footing. "16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. "


2 Peter 1 also provides that Scripture is unique: 19 And we have the prophetic word more fully confirmed, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts, 20 knowing this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture comes from someone's own interpretation. 21 For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.


Those are unique claims applied to the Scriptures.

But more to the point, if your desire is to ask questions, how hard have you looked into the Protestant claims of Sola Scriptura? What books have you wrestled with?

Quote:

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

Taking the position that you need someone to interpret for you changes nothing though. I can simply ask "How do you know the person who is the Pope/bishop/pastor isn't from Satan? You can apply your reasoning to literally anything and all come to the same conclusion. This is actually an argument as to why Sola Scriptura is so important because it says that traditions or bishops or pastors may speak God's word, but we only hold the Scripture as infallible and as the source that norms everything else.

Quote:

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

Again, this is where you betray your intentions in the "just questions" claim. Nowhere did I say my "foundation is the bible alone is necessary." To make this claim is to not understand Protestantism at all.

Scripture is the only infallible rule and source that norms everything else. But to say we dismiss other aspects of Church history is incorrect. Protestants in a lot of ways, are more faithful to the history of the Church because we are willing to see all aspects of it and avoid claims that are relatively easily disproven.


I don't think I have ever seen someone work so hard to avoid answering some direct questions.

OK, let me try this.

1. Do you agree with RC Sproul that the Bible is a fallible collection of infallible books?

2. How you would convince me that the Bible is the word of God if I was an atheist/agnostic?
AgLiving06
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FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

AgLiving06 said:

FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

AgLiving06 said:

FTACo88-FDT24dad said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
Where did we get the Bible?

How do we know what books are inspired?

Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?

How do we know what content of the Bible is dogma and/or doctrine?

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."


- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."
.


You did a really nice job of evading almost every question and offering a non-responsive response. That's certainly your right. I never said anything about Rome. I'm asking for answers to questions that should be easy for someone who bases their faith on the Bible alone. I don't see why this is controversial.

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

But let's just forget all that. Let's just ask the more important question: how do you know the Bible is the inspired word of God? Can you prove that?

But it seems that in the absence of a divinely protected authority to determine the canon of the Bible, basing a religion on the Bible alone is inherently suspect, never mind that it is a logically incoherent idea because the Bible in any form never says anything about it being the sole rule of faith and it certainly doesn't contain its own table of contents and it doesn't interpret itself.

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

I'll just re-urge the same questions and look forward to an actual response to each question. Thanks in advance.

First, to be clear, you didn't ask me the questions. I responded to them, and I did not evade on any of them.

You made claims. I pointed out they were problematic claims.

But further to the point, It's not evading the question to point out the flaws with the questions. Further, it's also not evading the question, if your position is they are questions, to add significant more context to the very question itself.

Quote:

""Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument."

It's not an argument. It's a question, although I agree it does point out that if you're going to premise your faith on a collection of books and nothing else, then the absence of anything in those books about those books being the sole rule of faith is a huge problem and it's not circular to ask for clear proof of such a statement. Put another way, if someone showed me in the Bible that the Bible clearly says it alone is to be looked to for answering questions of doctrine and dogma then I would have to seriously consider that.

The problem is your question is framed with the answer you want in mind, i.e. Pope.

But the simpliest answer is 2 Timothy 3 puts the Scriptures on unique footing. "16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. "


2 Peter 1 also provides that Scripture is unique: 19 And we have the prophetic word more fully confirmed, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts, 20 knowing this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture comes from someone's own interpretation. 21 For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.


Those are unique claims applied to the Scriptures.

But more to the point, if your desire is to ask questions, how hard have you looked into the Protestant claims of Sola Scriptura? What books have you wrestled with?

Quote:

""How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.""

That is an actual circular answer and it begs a question that is critical to understanding: how do you know it's the Holy Spirit and not Satan?

Taking the position that you need someone to interpret for you changes nothing though. I can simply ask "How do you know the person who is the Pope/bishop/pastor isn't from Satan? You can apply your reasoning to literally anything and all come to the same conclusion. This is actually an argument as to why Sola Scriptura is so important because it says that traditions or bishops or pastors may speak God's word, but we only hold the Scripture as infallible and as the source that norms everything else.

Quote:

I have no doubt you have thought about all of these questions since it appears that your entire religious system is built upon the foundation that the Bible alone is necessary and there's no way anyone whose faith is built upon such a fundamental premise would believe so based on some man made "tradition" or without being able to answer these foundational questions.

Again, this is where you betray your intentions in the "just questions" claim. Nowhere did I say my "foundation is the bible alone is necessary." To make this claim is to not understand Protestantism at all.

Scripture is the only infallible rule and source that norms everything else. But to say we dismiss other aspects of Church history is incorrect. Protestants in a lot of ways, are more faithful to the history of the Church because we are willing to see all aspects of it and avoid claims that are relatively easily disproven.


I don't think I have ever seen someone work so hard to avoid answering some direct questions.

OK, let me try this.

1. Do you agree with RC Sproul that the Bible is a fallible collection of infallible books?

2. How you would convince me that the Bible is the word of God if I was an atheist/agnostic?

To start, I have answered everyone of your questions. You may not like that I disagree with what you want, I don't know because you've not actually responded to anything, other than to claim "your avoiding answering xyz." That will show in my responses below, which I'm sure you will dismiss again.

Quote:

1. Do you agree with RC Sproul that the Bible is a fallible collection of infallible books?

I've never heard this quote from RC Sprouls and had to look it up it and try to get the context of the statement. I think I understand what he meant, but reserve the right to change if there's context that I missed.

How I understood the statement from Sprouls is that the "faillible collection" is referring to the Church and so Sprouls is saying that the Church can be fallible and still have infallible books.

So if my understanding is correct of what Sprouls meant, then yes, I functionally agree with him on this point.

Many of the answers I gave above, would be direct support to this conclusion.

Quote:

2. How you would convince me that the Bible is the word of God if I was an atheist/agnostic?

I nor anyone can do this. It is the role of God to do this.

He might use you or I to preach, teach, apologize for, or simply live a life that shows God's love, but only God can truly reach into the heart of the unrepentant and knock down the walls that person has built up.

The Formula of Concord answers it this way:

"[5] Against these two parties the pure teachers of the Augsburg Confession have taught and contended that human beings were so corrupted through the fall of our first parents that in spiritual matters concerning our conversion and the salvation of our soul they are by nature blind, and that when God's Word is preached they do not and cannot understand it. Instead, they regard it as foolishness and cannot use it to bring themselves nearer to God. On the contrary, they are and remain God's enemy until by his grace alone, without any contribution of their own, they are converted, made believers, reborn, and renewed by the power of the Holy Spirit through the Word as it is preached and heard [1 Cor. 2:4*, 1213*].



BluHorseShu
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AG
TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
But isn't it an assumption that Mary did not remain a virgin afterward? Yes, I know we can get into the whole debate about whether Jesus brothers were cousins or step brothers and the Greek terms used etc. Scripture mining is how most justify their particular beliefs
Faithful Ag
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BluHorseShu said:

TrailerTrash said:

Mary has to be a virgin for Christ to be God, we all agree.
Churches that value tradition like the scripture are kind of like Aggies, they take one very important true doctrine and then build enormously complex traditions on top of it.

The perpetual virginity or the assumption of Mary etc etc. things that are not in the Bible but one might assume happened because of what is in the Bible, like adding on to your house, or the 12th man out of what a coach said 100 years ago, becomes a trademark, a lawsuit, and a uniform everyone wears.
But isn't it an assumption that Mary did not remain a virgin afterward? Yes, I know we can get into the whole debate about whether Jesus brothers were cousins or step brothers and the Greek terms used etc. Scripture mining is how most justify their particular beliefs
Scripture mining may be how most Protestants justify their beliefs, but that's is not what the majority of Christians have done historically. Seriously, the Bible didn't even have chapters and verses for over 1,000 years and the vast majority of Christians were not even literate for hundreds of years after that. The faith was received through the Apostolic church.

And on Mary's virginity, there is nothing to assume about her perpetual virginity. The church has consistently taught from the earliest days that Mary was perpetually a virgin. It is really only in the last few hundred years that people assume or attempt to make the case otherwise. Everyone, even the Reformers, affirmed Mary's perpetual virginity.
C2 Ag 93
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I respect the views of others on this subject and from what I have seen so far in this thread enjoy the civility of the discussion, as it should be among believers. For what it's worth, here's my thoughts on the topic.

I probably have some unique perspectives overall when compared to most "doctrinal Christian" threads of thought. I was raised Catholic, confirmed Lutheran, went Baptist, attend an Evangelical church now, challenged my beliefs relative to Judaism and Islam, and currently consider myself "Judeo-Christian" (to clarify, not Messianic). I have a deep affinity to studying history and archeology, travel to Israel almost annually, and love science. Helps to know the background I am coming from.

The OP asked "why do Catholics venerate" Mary so much. Venerate could mean simply "revere." But as a former Catholic - now "protestant", I sense the OP was touching more on what may seem to protestants to be "deifying" Mary. I think all Christians believe it is inappropriate to "deify" Mary, including Catholics. My memory from those days is the Catholic catechism teaches she is not a god. But in my opinion, the veneration has the risk of crossing some into "deification" even if that is not the express doctrine. Protestants have closer to Jewish sensitivities in this regard - that is, to guard against human tendency to take something like this too far.

But I do understand for those Catholics that can "keep the line", in their mind and heart, Mary is not a deity and I don't find issue with the idea that saints can hear our prayers. But as a Judeo-Christian protestant, I don't see the need to go through a saint for help when you can simply speak directly to God.

I do find issue however withe doctrines that a) she was a perpetual virgin, since the Bible is clear to me Yeshua had siblings and the doctrine is not expressly found in the Bible (you have to practice eisegesis to get there) and b) she ascended to heaven (clearly not found anywhere in scripture). I also don't believe the doctrine of Mary's immaculate conception (again, you have to practice eisegesis to get there). However, none of these doctrines, IMO FWIW, cross a line to cause me to believe Catholics are un-Christian (simply to me, they are incorrect and overly complicate something that actually is pretty simple when you exegete the Bible).
C2 Ag 93
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Faithful Ag said:

BluHorseShu said:

TrailerTrash said:

Scripture mining may be how most Protestants justify their beliefs, but that's is not what the majority of Christians have done historically. Seriously, [1] the Bible didn't even have chapters and verses for over 1,000 years [/1] and the vast majority of Christians were not even literate for hundreds of years after that. [2] The faith was received through the Apostolic church. [/2]


And on Mary's virginity, there is nothing to assume about her perpetual virginity. [3] The church has consistently taught from the earliest days that Mary was perpetually a virgin. [/3] It is really only in the last few hundred years that people assume or attempt to make the case otherwise. Everyone, even the Reformers, affirmed Mary's perpetual virginity.

Respectfully, there are clear errors in the above. On items marked as follows:

1 - I assume the assertion is the Bible wasn't written for 1.000 years. Clearly not true. The Tanakh was fully written before Yeshua's arrival. And the Synoptic gospels were written by around 100-200 AD, and a hypothesis holds the "Q" source existed shortly after Yeshua's earthly mission on which the Synoptic gospels were based. If you meant the Bible wasn't organized on codified into a single book, it's irrelevant, since each book (or epistle) was in written form and clearly being studied by early Christians. The Nag Hamadi library is clear evidence of this. I do agree illiteracy existed, but the idea that we needed priests in a church to convey the scripture to us is historically incorrect. Again, the writings existed, and were clearly being studied; it was in fact the very reason the Nicene council had to be convened (325 AD) because of the differing views based on the eventually codified Bible and the apocryphal writings.

2 - Again, incorrect, as covered in item 1 above. Early Christians studied the early writings and held widely differing views. For the first 300 years, many (perhaps most) Christians were closer to Jews in many interpretations and thoughts on the faith than after the first 300 years. Consider the Ebionites, for example, which were likely founded on the teachings of the apostles in Jerusalem, and archaeological evidence points to other communities of Jews that still thought of themselves as Jews who simply considered Jeshua the messiah (e.g., commonplace writings and histories, from a Jewish viewpoint, of "heresies in the synagogue" and yeshivas exist). The concept that Christians only received their instruction from the "Apostolic church" is Catholic doctrine (e.g., "unbroken succession of authority from Yeshua to the Popes") and somewhat historical revisionism from what is clear in the archeological and historical records. Again, the very fact that the Nicene council was needed proves the diverse thought and instruction with which the early Christians were wrestling. It's quite clear that Christianity slowly "diverged from Judaism" over hundreds of years rather than being "instantly created" by the Apostles.

3 - There simply is no evidence of the assertion that the "church has always" (I interpreted as from the apostles themselves) taught the doctrine of "perpetual" virginity. There is evidence that even the earliest Christians believed she was a virgin, but simply no evidence of a belief in "perpetual" virginity from the earliest days. I think we can all agree the doctrine is not "clearly" (using exegesis rather than eisegesis) in the Bible. IMO, Mark 6:3 seems clear to me the writer named siblings of Yeshua, but I understand this has been a point of debate between Catholics and non-Catholics.
Redstone
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AG
Meta issues here. Big picture:

The Bible is NOT the word of God. Christ is the word of God. The Bible is a holy product of 3 centuries of intense, often personalized debate in Italy and Anatolia.

Get a good translation, meaning IMO Orthodox scholar David Bentley Hart.
NO early Christian believed St. Mary had other children, for excellent reasons also in the text.
If you want to go really deep with amazing detail, try Bl. Anne Catherine Emmerich visions (Angelico Press or TAN Books).

St. Anne and St. Mary, by the very nature of their divine mission, were unique and set apart.
Please try Emmerich (I'm a believer, truly incredible - but the Catholic waters are deep there, so be aware)

St. Mary is the Ark - after Titus smashed the Temple in 70, we see….
Temple (body), Sacrifice (Mass), manna (Eucharist), a new priesthood, and more parallels and fulfillment by the dozens

In this Apostolic light, Catholic and Orthodox, there was unity of belief for the first 1,500 years of the faith.
Redstone
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AG
The Church came before the Bible. The Bible is its product, which took nearly 400 years. Enoch is quoted in Jude. The Apostles taught from it. Why is Enoch not in the canon? Why was the extremely controversial Revelation included? Who decided? The Apostolic Church decided.

So with St. Mary: she is our mother, she was St. John's mother at Christ's command, the new Eve as Jesus was the new Adam, and the Mother of God because Jesus is God.

She is not to be worshipped and she is also not like us. She is the greatest human, the most honored. Similarly but lesser - St. Anne. They are spiritually superior to us, and we should follow their example.
Faithful Ag
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I appreciate your thoughtfulness so thank you for that.

1. My point on the Bible was that up until well after the East/West Schism (so for more than 1,000 years of Christianity) there was no proof-texting or "verse mining" to speak of in the way people commonly do it today. Chapters and Verse numbers were not added until the 1200's or later.

2. When I speak of the Apostolic Church I am not limiting it to the Roman Catholic Church but also Eastern Catholics and the Orthodox. Also, I have never said or implied that the faith was "instantly created" by the Apostles.

3. The Traditions of both the East and West offer solid support for the perpetual virginity of Mary including in the Liturgy. Some things definitely develop over time but the East and West are united on Mary's virginity and our veneration for the Blessed Mother.

As far as the so-called "brothers" of Jesus are concerned, the Bible tells us the "brothers" are NOT children of the Virgin Mary in several ways. James and Joses are the sons of Mary, the wife of Clopus, who is also referred to as "the other Mary". Jesus also entrusts his mother to John at the foot of the cross which could not have been done if Mary had living sons. There is more that can be said on the topic but maybe another night.
AgLiving06
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Now that I have time, i'l address your post.

Quote:

We absolutely can claim that the Bible was handed down to us by God's chosen people through God's authoritative church. The OT comes to us through the Jews from Moses up to Jesus. Jesus fulfilled the OT and gave His authority to Peter and the Apostles, promised the guidance and protection of the Holy Spirit, and established His visible and authoritative NT Church. In a very real sense it is through the SAME Church that we received the Bible, both OT and NT. The institutions are not different bodies but one continuous Church. So, I would disagree with you the the OT existed prior to "Rome".

The question was "Where did we get the BIble from?" not whatever your trying to answer. You have a habit of asking and answering the question you want to answer, not the question at hand.

You also present yourself with a problem with your answer.

If the "Church" of the OT was infallible to preserve and pass the Scriptures, why did Jesus spend so much time explaining to the Pharisees and Sadducees where they had gone wrong?

If the Church was infallible prior to Jesus, does that make Jesus wrong?

Additionally, there's no way we can claim to be the same Church as the OT. God's people was extremely narrow to the point that it excluded many people of Jewish descent (Canaanites, Moabites, Hittites, etc).

The promise of the NT is materially different.

But finally and just to be abundantly clear, You claim that you are "one continuous Church" with a group who would absolutely not agree with you and dismisses the NT and would say you are misinterpreting the OT that they preserved.

So as I said, it would seem if you wanted to be part of the "church" that infallible collected the OT, you would want to become Jewish.

Quote:

Again you fail to grasp the whole point. Nobody is claiming "Rome" is responsible for all things Christian and/or somehow replaces the Holy Spirit. However, Jesus established His visible and authoritative Church on Peter and the Apostles, and it was through these chosen men (the Church) that we have received their writings. It was through this same Church that the writings were collected and then either included in the Bible or excluded from the Bible. This entire process was guided by the Holy Spirit, and this Church is the visible and Apostolic Church going all the way back to Peter, who was appointed by Jesus. Without the church, the writings of Paul, Matthew, Luke, & Peter would not be meaningful and would be unknown to us today.

Once again, you change the question and answer what you want to answer.

Did I say Rome was responsible for all things? No I pointed out that Rome (or any established "Church") did not commission the writing of the books. The most you can say is that the church received the writings that God wanted man to retain so that we knew His Word.

I'm not going to respond to your comments on Peter because they are way off topic, other than to point out that the church has never universally agreed with your claims, which of course presents more problems for your argument.

To be abundantly clear again, no Church or human commissioned the writing of any of the books of the NT (and obviously the OT).

Quote:

The fact remains that the "disputed and apocryphal" books are/were included in the Bible (East & West) from the time of Hippo & Carthage, translated and included by Jerome in the vulgate, remained after the 1054 Schism, etc. etc. etc. These "disputed" books are now rejected as Scripture by today's Protestants and the question we are asking WHO today has that authority?? What individual or what body rightfully holds that power and authority?

First, I'm surprised you haven't done the research yet on the "who removed the books?" You've been asking for so long, I assumed you'd look into it.

Second, once again, you change the question to the one you want to answer.

I'll just reply with this: "As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups."

Quote:

This is not an answer. Sorry. The Holy Spirit cannot lie and is not confused. The Holy Spirit was sent to guide the Church into all truth. This church includes the 7 "disputed" books in our Bible. Protestants exclude them. Are you saying the Holy Spirit can be divided and lead Christians into different truths?

I don't even know what your trying to say? You must have responded to the wrong thing b/c none of what you claim here is a reply to my statements.

Quote:

What are you trying to say here because you are not making a coherent point?

nice reply. It's quite coherent. You just don't like what it means.

Quote:

Again you deflect and avoid answering a straightforward, direct question. The authority of the Catholic Church comes from Jesus Christ. He gave this authority to his Apostles and appointed Peter as their chief. This authority is supported by the Apostolic Traditions of the church and is demonstrated from the very beginning, even before the first word of the NT was written. Yes, the Scriptures testify to this authority and support it, but the Church existed before the NT. Without the Church and her authority it would not be possible to have the NT.

We have very different ideas of deflection.

It's not a deflection to point out that by inserting Rome into the equation, the circular arguments don't stop.

Again, most of what you said here is factually inaccurate. The claims of Rome about Peter have been disputed from the very start with a significant portion of the Church rejecting those claim.

The last statement is bluster without any support for it.

Even with the Scriptures, you claims are disputed, and without them, it wouldn't even be a question.

So, without Scripture, you can't justify your position as the church and yet you claim as the church you infallible collected the Scripture. It's circular.
Redstone
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AG
In Islam, the "word of God" is literal: the prophet was a scribe. God spoke and there is a text.

In Christianity, the canon of texts took four centuries of quite contentious debate. And the "word of God" is a divine Person.

Who debated? Councils, appointed by bishops. Meeting in Italy and Anatolia and the Levant. That is why Enoch - taught by Jesus and quoted in the canon - is excluded.
Faithful Ag
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AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

This aren't the gotcha questions you want them to be.

"Where did we get the Bible from?"
- You can't say the Rome because it introduces a problem. The OT existed prior to "Rome as a Church group." So if you want to really take this approach, then you probably need to convert to Judaism.
We absolutely can claim that the Bible was handed down to us by God's chosen people through God's authoritative church. The OT comes to us through the Jews from Moses up to Jesus. Jesus fulfilled the OT and gave His authority to Peter and the Apostles, promised the guidance and protection of the Holy Spirit, and established His visible and authoritative NT Church. In a very real sense it is through the SAME Church that we received the Bible, both OT and NT. The institutions are not different bodies but one continuous Church. So, I would disagree with you the the OT existed prior to "Rome".
The question was "Where did we get the BIble from?" not whatever your trying to answer. You have a habit of asking and answering the question you want to answer, not the question at hand.
I was responding to your statement that we can't say Rome gave us the Bible because the OT existed before Jesus "Rome", and that we need to convert to Judaism. I was just highlighting that Jesus was Jewish, and so were Peter and all of the Apostles who were also the very first Christians. Christianity is Judaism fulfilled so you have it exactly backwards above.

AgLiving06 said:

You also present yourself with a problem with your answer.

If the "Church" of the OT was infallible to preserve and pass the Scriptures, why did Jesus spend so much time explaining to the Pharisees and Sadducees where they had gone wrong?

If the Church was infallible prior to Jesus, does that make Jesus wrong?
Here is another example of your changing words to rephrase what I actually said shifting the meaning and setting up your straw-man to beat down. Congratulations. Authoritative =/= Infallible.

With regard to Jesus and the Pharisees remember what he said about them they sit on Moses' Seat therefore do and observe whatever they tell you, but do not do what they do because they are hypocrites. Jesus recognized that at that moment they were the proper authority with the power to bind and loose because they sat on the seat of Moses. Infallible? No. Authoritative? Yes.

AgLiving06 said:

Additionally, there's no way we can claim to be the same Church as the OT. God's people was extremely narrow to the point that it excluded many people of Jewish descent (Canaanites, Moabites, Hittites, etc).

The promise of the NT is materially different.

But finally and just to be abundantly clear, You claim that you are "one continuous Church" with a group who would absolutely not agree with you and dismisses the NT and would say you are misinterpreting the OT that they preserved.

So as I said, it would seem if you wanted to be part of the "church" that infallible collected the OT, you would want to become Jewish.
I would like to point out that that NONE of these words you have posted in your "response" to the question originally asking Where did we get the Bible from have attempted to address the actual question. NOT ONE. 100% of everything you have posted here is just telling us what we cannot claim and/or what the end result or consequence of our position must mean (which you are very wrong about btw).

And now to address this point First Century Christians like Mary, Peter, the Apostles, Paul, etc. etc. etc. were ALL Jews who became followers of Jesus. The fact that other Jews did not convert to become followers of Jesus but remained Jews changes nothing about the NT Church. The fact that Jews kept being Jews does nothing to change what Christians believe or what the Christian Church believes or teaches. Jesus built his Church on Peter and the Apostles and gave them His authority and the guidance and protection of the Holy Spirit and promised that guidance until the end of the ages. That's good enough for me.



Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

- You also aren't arguing that the Rome commissioned Paul or Matthew or Luke or Peter to write the books, so the actual writing is also not dependent on the Rome.
Again you fail to grasp the whole point. Nobody is claiming "Rome" is responsible for all things Christian and/or somehow replaces the Holy Spirit. However, Jesus established His visible and authoritative Church on Peter and the Apostles, and it was through these chosen men (the Church) that we have received their writings. It was through this same Church that the writings were collected and then either included in the Bible or excluded from the Bible. This entire process was guided by the Holy Spirit, and this Church is the visible and Apostolic Church going all the way back to Peter, who was appointed by Jesus. Without the church, the writings of Paul, Matthew, Luke, & Peter would not be meaningful and would be unknown to us today.
AgLiving06 said:

Once again, you change the question and answer what you want to answer.
We are still on the question of Where did we get the Bible from? right? Because thus far you have offered nothing in the way of an answer to that question. Nada.

AgLiving06 said:

Did I say Rome was responsible for all things? No I pointed out that Rome (or any established "Church") did not commission the writing of the books. The most you can say is that the church received the writings that God wanted man to retain so that we knew His Word.


I'm not going to respond to your comments on Peter because they are way off topic, other than to point out that the church has never universally agreed with your claims, which of course presents more problems for your argument.

To be abundantly clear again, no Church or human commissioned the writing of any of the books of the NT (and obviously the OT).
You continue to say that no Church or human "commissioned" the writings that became the NT as if proactively commissioning the writings is somehow necessary. I don't understand the point you are attempting to make or what you think that proves? Jesus Christ chose his Apostles and Disciples and He established his visible and authoritative Church on earth. These leaders, through the course of establishing churches and spreading the good news and teaching the faith did many things. One of those many things was to write letters to instruct, teach, encourage, correct, and reproof. They were not hyper-focused on the documentation part, but some of these many letters were preserved by the Church and were eventually recognized as Scripture. Was that their intent? Probably not, but the Church gathered and collected writings and discerned which of them should be included or excluded from the Bible.

The Church is not a building or a place. The Church is made up of fallible people. The Church did much more than just "receive the writings that God wanted man to retain so that we knew his word". The Church wrote them, received them, collected them, discerned them, and canonized them. The only way all of this happens is IF there is a visible and authoritative Church, which I am arguing there was and there is today. Last point on this, The "Word of God" is not limited only to the Bible.

Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

- But even more simply, "Rome" didn't decide the canon. As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups.
The fact remains that the "disputed and apocryphal" books are/were included in the Bible (East & West) from the time of Hippo & Carthage, translated and included by Jerome in the vulgate, remained after the 1054 Schism, etc. etc. etc. These "disputed" books are now rejected as Scripture by today's Protestants and the question we are asking WHO today has that authority?? What individual or what body rightfully holds that power and authority?
AgLiving06 said:

First, I'm surprised you haven't done the research yet on the "who removed the books?" You've been asking for so long, I assumed you'd look into it.
I have looked into who removed the books from the Bible, and the answer should be very concerning for any "Sola Scriptura" Protestant believer. Unfortunately, it seems most would rather just keep their heads buried in the sand about it and not look into it critically for themselves. When America was born the Bible contained 73 books. In the early 1800's, Protestant Bible societies began a movement to finally have the 7 Deuterocanonical books expunged from the Bible and eventually they were successful. Alarmingly it is not possible to pinpoint WHO was actually responsible and by WHAT authority they made this decision or from WHERE this "authority" derived.


AgLiving06 said:

Second, once again, you change the question to the one you want to answer.
We are still on the SAME question of Where did we get the Bible from.. You have yet to address that question or make any attempt to provide an answer to the question. Go back and read everything you have written and ignore everything I have written. NOTHING you have offered here goes to the question at hand. All you have done is tell me/us we are wrong and the problem with our position but you have still not made any attempt to answer the question.

AgLiving06 said:

I'll just reply with this: "As has been pointed out in other areas, the Apocrypha literally stands for disputed texts and to this day are treated differently among different groups."
I know you keep saying this but it really answers nothing. I can accept the books are/were disputed which begs the question WHO ended the dispute? By what authority? Saying they were disputed does not give permission to jettison the books and cast them out.

now on to question #2:

AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

"How do we know what books are inspired."
- The simple answer is through the Holy Spirit because Jesus tells us so. John 14:25-26 "25 "These things I have spoken to you while I am still with you. 26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you."
This is not an answer. Sorry. The Holy Spirit cannot lie and is not confused. The Holy Spirit was sent to guide the Church into all truth. This church includes the 7 "disputed" books in our Bible. Protestants exclude them. Are you saying the Holy Spirit can be divided and lead Christians into different truths?
I don't even know what your trying to say? You must have responded to the wrong thing b/c none of what you claim here is a reply to my statements.
I've included your original for context. You said that we know what books are inspired through the Holy Spirit and you quoted a verse to support your assertion. You hold to a 66 Book Biblical Canon excluding the 7 Books. Catholics and Orthodox have a larger Canon including the 7 Books. The Holy Spirit is God and cannot lead the Church into error so how do we know with certainty which of us is rightly following the Holy Spirit? This is why I go back to the visible, Apostolic, and authoritative truth and NOT the Bible societies of the 1800's.



AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

- Just as Jesus intervened in mankind, the Holy Spirit also taught and gave to us a remembrance of what Jesus said...i.e. the Church and the Scriptures.
What are you trying to say here because you are not making a coherent point?
nice reply. It's quite coherent. You just don't like what it means.
The entire disagreement we are having is about what books belong in the Bible. Your response is vague and ambiguous and thus unintelligible. When you say Church what do you mean and when?



AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

"Where in the Bible does it say that an article of faith must be found in the Bible in order to be an article of faith?"
- This is a circular argument. Likewise, I could ask you where Rome's claim of authority resides without reference to the Scriptures. You can't simultaneously rely on the claim that Rome can decide doctrine not found in Scripture, and that you derive this authority from the Scripture. All you're really saying is "I declare this to be true because I declare it to be true."
Again you deflect and avoid answering a straightforward, direct question. The authority of the Catholic Church comes from Jesus Christ. He gave this authority to his Apostles and appointed Peter as their chief. This authority is supported by the Apostolic Traditions of the church and is demonstrated from the very beginning, even before the first word of the NT was written. Yes, the Scriptures testify to this authority and support it, but the Church existed before the NT. Without the Church and her authority it would not be possible to have the NT.
We have very different ideas of deflection.

It's not a deflection to point out that by inserting Rome into the equation, the circular arguments don't stop.

Again, most of what you said here is factually inaccurate. The claims of Rome about Peter have been disputed from the very start with a significant portion of the Church rejecting those claim.

The last statement is bluster without any support for it.

Even with the Scriptures, you claims are disputed, and without them, it wouldn't even be a question.

So, without Scripture, you can't justify your position as the church and yet you claim as the church you infallible collected the Scripture. It's circular.
Let me be more direct in that "Rome" does not DERIVE her authority from the Scriptures, and we do not claim the Church's authority justifies her authority as you said above. Nothing you have said here has any substance whatsoever. Zero. You are just lobbing opinions and hiding behind generic disputes. The historical fact is that the Scriptures, the Holy Bible, is the perfect example of how the Church's authority is properly expressed and the Bible is an example of Sacred Tradition and the Magesterium of the Church working.

The Bible did not drop out of the sky, and the Holy Spirit did not deliver the Bible directly. On the contrary the Holy Spirit worked through the fallible men of the Church in all aspects including the commissioning, the writing, the sending, the reading, the collecting, the deciding, the recognizing, and the canonizing. The visible and Apostolic Church, because it was given all authority through her Bishops, is the only vessel through which we can rightly and confidently know what is and is not Scripture. No individual man can make this decision, and only the one group given this authority can rightly discern the answer (not Bible societies 1800 years removed from the time of the Apostles).

The Bible is the work product of the Church and without the CHURCH we could have no Bible. The CHURCH, through her the Apostles and Bishops guided by the Holy Spirit over the course of hundreds of years, wrote, collected, debated and discerned the question of WHAT is Scripture. The Holy Spirit guided the entire process but without the visible, authoritative Church there would be no Bible. The Deposit of Faith was given to men. This faith came to them orally and through the Sacred Traditions which is what they taught to others and new converts whom they Baptized. The faith did not come to them in written form. As a part of their teaching over time and through the normal course of functioning the Church wrote letters and through some of these letters comes to us the Bible. The Bible is not the exhaustive or exclusive manual or encyclopedia for everything needed for Christians and it was never intended to replace the authoritative Church or Sacred Traditions to stand by itself as the sole authority.

This is not Circular but triangular. You have all 3 authorities working in concert and testifying to each other like 3 legs of a stool supporting the seat. In the beginning, we had the same 3 legs but the Scriptures referred only to the OT as held by the Apostles and Jesus (Septuagint). Over time the Church gave us the gift of the NT. All 3 legs are needed in order for the Church to function properly. We need the infallible word, guided by her Sacred Traditions, and interpreted infallibly in order for the Bible to maintain its infallibility.





edits for formatting and to correct Jesus to Rome.
AgLiving06
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Redstone said:

In Islam, the "word of God" is literal: the prophet was a scribe. God spoke and there is a text.

In Christianity, the canon of texts took four centuries of quite contentious debate. And the "word of God" is a divine Person.

Who debated? Councils, appointed by bishops. Meeting in Italy and Anatolia and the Levant. That is why Enoch - taught by Jesus and quoted in the canon - is excluded.

So the Scriptures are not the Word of God? That's interesting.
Redstone
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AG
No. These holy tests as a canon are a product of the Apostolic Church, which came centuries before.

The Word of God is a Divine Person, a personal Spirit, the very Reason and Logic and Order of all creation (Logos).

The telos of life is theosis to this Logos.
 
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