Question on Mary

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Bob Lee
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


When you say the "early church". Can you define your terms? That there was disagreement between some Church fathers is not the same as saying the Church. Jerome also did not reject all of the parts of Deuterocanonical books and he included all 7 in the Vulgate because he recognized the Church's authority given to it by God to determine the canon.

I provided a pretty large response on the disagreement earlier in this thread. That would be a good starting point. But really a quick google search shows just how mixed the response was towards these books.

And as with Faithful Ag, the question is not whether they were included or not, but as to their status and Jerome gave them the name Apocrypha because they were disputed texts.




But you're conflating church fathers with One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church. Magisterial teaching is not a Chinese menu of Saint quotes to pick from here and there on this and that.
AgLiving06
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


No support provided? Are the books part of the Orthodox Bible? how did they get there? Were the books part of the Protestant bible? When were they taken out?

Your argument is that these books were not considered Biblical canon until the council of Trent. There are mountains of evidence to prove otherwise. If the early church didn't consider these biblical canon, why are they in everyone's Bible 1,000 years + before Trent?

Why were they removed from Protestant bibles AFTER Trent?

I don't actually believe the EO holds the same standard as Rome does.

A quick look at the St. Tikhon's Seminary says the following: "Although the Orthodox Church accepts these books as being canonical, and treasures them and uses them liturgically, she does not use them as primary sources in the definition of her dogmas."
----------

And you incorrectly state my argument. My argument is that while the Apocrypha was part of the Bible, it was held out as separate or different than the rest of the canon. What Trent does is novel in that it forces them as equals to the rest of the canon in all aspects. That is novel.

In terms of when they were removed, I go back to my very first post, that it was a mistake, but to try and associate the removal with the Reformation is incorrect as has been well established.
AgLiving06
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


When you say the "early church". Can you define your terms? That there was disagreement between some Church fathers is not the same as saying the Church. Jerome also did not reject all of the parts of Deuterocanonical books and he included all 7 in the Vulgate because he recognized the Church's authority given to it by God to determine the canon.

I provided a pretty large response on the disagreement earlier in this thread. That would be a good starting point. But really a quick google search shows just how mixed the response was towards these books.

And as with Faithful Ag, the question is not whether they were included or not, but as to their status and Jerome gave them the name Apocrypha because they were disputed texts.




But you're conflating church fathers with One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church. Magisterial teaching is not a Chinese menu of Saint quotes to pick from here and there on this and that.

Yes...I don't believe in or support your claim of magisterial authority. So their claims aren't particularly relevant and it "should" be even more concerning to you when you have to essentially admit that their claims don't align with the early church.
Dies Irae
How long do you want to ignore this user?
AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


No support provided? Are the books part of the Orthodox Bible? how did they get there? Were the books part of the Protestant bible? When were they taken out?

Your argument is that these books were not considered Biblical canon until the council of Trent. There are mountains of evidence to prove otherwise. If the early church didn't consider these biblical canon, why are they in everyone's Bible 1,000 years + before Trent?

Why were they removed from Protestant bibles AFTER Trent?

I don't actually believe the EO holds the same standard as Rome does.

A quick look at the St. Tikhon's Seminary says the following: "Although the Orthodox Church accepts these books as being canonical, and treasures them and uses them liturgically, she does not use them as primary sources in the definition of her dogmas."
----------

And you incorrectly state my argument. My argument is that while the Apocrypha was part of the Bible, it was held out as separate or different than the rest of the canon. What Trent does is novel in that it forces them as equals to the rest of the canon in all aspects. That is novel.

In terms of when they were removed, I go back to my very first post, that it was a mistake, but to try and associate the removal with the Reformation is incorrect as has been well established.


You could have stopped at "accepts these as canonical". If the Apocrypha is part of the Bible, and the Bible is God breathed how can it be removed?
Zobel
How long do you want to ignore this user?
AG
There's tiers within scripture. The Torah stands over the OT as a whole, the NT stands over the OT, the Gospels stand over the NT as a whole. It doesn't need to be so contentious. It's ok that the apocrypha are a tier apart.
Bob Lee
How long do you want to ignore this user?
AG
AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


When you say the "early church". Can you define your terms? That there was disagreement between some Church fathers is not the same as saying the Church. Jerome also did not reject all of the parts of Deuterocanonical books and he included all 7 in the Vulgate because he recognized the Church's authority given to it by God to determine the canon.

I provided a pretty large response on the disagreement earlier in this thread. That would be a good starting point. But really a quick google search shows just how mixed the response was towards these books.

And as with Faithful Ag, the question is not whether they were included or not, but as to their status and Jerome gave them the name Apocrypha because they were disputed texts.




But you're conflating church fathers with One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church. Magisterial teaching is not a Chinese menu of Saint quotes to pick from here and there on this and that.

Yes...I don't believe in or support your claim of magisterial authority. So their claims aren't particularly relevant and it "should" be even more concerning to you when you have to essentially admit that their claims don't align with the early church.



Why mention Jerome at all then? That's kind of the point of the Magisterium. If you can't make a compelling argument for the formal sufficiency of scripture, which church father should I appeal to? Irenaeus on this one thing, Origen on another, and Luther for the things on which those two disagree?
Dies Irae
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Zobel said:

There's tiers within scripture. The Torah stands over the OT as a whole, the NT stands over the OT, the Gospels stand over the NT as a whole. It doesn't need to be so contentious. It's ok that the apocrypha are a tier apart.


Not okay to remove books from the Bible however. God-breathed is God-breathed. Obviously the books of the Gospel are the top tier; but that doesn't make the other books matter less.
AgLiving06
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Quote:

the historical evidence supporting my claim is what you stated directly below. The Books were there. Whatever disputes between individual church fathers or Bishops there may have been early on, the Church left the books there, and in fact insisted they remain there to which Jerome submitted.

Which is just attempting to set up a straw-man in the end. Nobody disputes that. That you keep acting like this is meaningful is just something I don't understand.

And to not mention that Jerome gave the name Apocrypha is to be very selective with history.

Quote:

what do you do with the more than 1,000 years between "this time" and Luther? The church kept them in and used them with numerous cross-references in the NT citing these books. I am consistently relying on what the Church did following the dispute vs. trying to interpolate what they were really thinking but chose not to clarify for those thousand plus years. The books were used to confirm and support NT scripture and church doctrine.

I do nothing with it. My claim is that Luther included these books in his Bible under the exact same heading established by Jerome above when he wrote the vulgate.

As pointed out in another response, using these books as a primary source for doctrine certainly has historical challenges. This is well attested in the history of the church.

Quote:

You are still saying something different here. The Holy Spirit guided the Church. The infallible source is the Holy Spirit which guides and protects the church infallibly. Through this Church (Bishops), and as a part of her Sacred Tradition, we have received the Scriptures and we can have confidence in their reliability and accuracy. In order for the Scriptures to hold and maintain their place as an infallible source you must have the correct books AND an infallible interpretation. The only way this can happen is through the church which objectively kept the books there.

You've now changed your argument. This was your initial statement:

"Step 1: While there is not a divinely inspired table of contents or order of books, the books that were in there were in fact already in an order that was determined by the church, guided by the Holy Spirit. Then an individual man decided to change that in a significant way while also adding his warning that these 7 books are not equal to scripture. The 7 books were in fact moved from where they historically were"

Your claim originally is now materially different then your original claim, presumably to try and avoid the problem you walked into.

From your original claim, if it's your claim that the Holy Spirit determined the order of the canon, then it's just as easy to assume he guided the creation of the only infallible source we would need.

BTW, I took a look at the Council of Carthage, and your reasoning has a challenge. They used a different order of the canon. So I guess we can assume the Holy Spirit did not guide that canon and ignore it?

"It was also determined that besides the Canonical Scriptures nothing be read in the Church under the title of divine Scriptures. The Canonical Scriptures are these: Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy, Joshua the son of Nun, Judges, Ruth, four books of Kings, 3 two books of Paraleipomena, 4 Job, the Psalter, five books of Solomon, 5 the books of the twelve prophets, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezechiel, Daniel, Tobit, Judith, Esther, two books of Esdras, 6 two books of the Maccabees. Of the New Testament: four books of the Gospels, one book of the Acts of the Apostles, thirteen Epistles of the Apostle Paul, one epistle of the same [writer] to the Hebrews, two Epistles of the Apostle Peter, three of John, one of James, one of Jude, one book of the Apocalypse of John. Let this be made known also to our brother and fellow-priest Boniface, or to other bishops of those parts, for the purpose of confirming that Canon. because we have received from our fathers that those books must be read in the Church. Let it also be allowed that the Passions of Martyrs be read when their festivals are kept."


Quote:

We are supposed to believe and follow the church discerns through her Bishops, the magesterium vs. cherry picking what quotes or positions we can cobble together pitting church fathers against each other.

Not even the EO agree with you on this.

Quote:

Jerome may have given the books the name Apocrypha, but he submitted to the wisdom and discernment of the Church.

You keep saying the position Rome took is novel, but you fail to acknowledge the Luther acted first. For the sake of argument let's say we agree the books were "disputed" - who resolved the dispute and when? Are you taking the position that Athanasius resolved the dispute, or maybe Jerome? If not who and when? Luther? Is this dispute something any individual man can resolve?

Luther acted first? You've made a claim that you haven't actually defended. I searched high and low today for any commentary on Luther moving the books around and the only thing I saw was praise, from Roman thinkers for his German NT Bible, which would have had a reordered NT as well. As they say, your house is built on a foundation. of sand. That Luther moved the books and that's somehow a scandal seems more like you grasping at straws then bringing a real point.

Quote:

No. I presuppose nothing. The facts are simple. Luther decided to make changes to what he had received through the Church because Luther thought he knew better than the collective church. You do not deny these facts, you just want to justify his reasoning and justify his position. My question is where did Luther derive the authority to do what he did? Jerome did not claim this type of authority, but somehow Luther knew more or had a better view of the "historical view" some 1200 years

You absolutely presuppose that a single canon order existed and was divinely inspired. That it is likely that Rome simply relied on Jeromes Vulgate as an order does not equate to divinely inspired. You can argue it's a tradition at most, but not some holy thing.

Quote:

How could Luther have mandated his order be followed? It's almost comical to compare Luther, an individual man, to the collective Church and her Bishops. The whole point is that Luther had NO AUTHORITY to do what he did. That authority was placed with the Church and her Bishops, which was forced to make a declarative decision because of the confusion Luther introduced (or re-introduced if you will).

You misread. He didn't mandate anything. In fact, from the research I did today, what made his Bible a hit was it was written in the common language. Rome desperately tried to get versions translated into German, but because they were based on the vulgate, they failed to translate cleanly.
AgLiving06
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Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


When you say the "early church". Can you define your terms? That there was disagreement between some Church fathers is not the same as saying the Church. Jerome also did not reject all of the parts of Deuterocanonical books and he included all 7 in the Vulgate because he recognized the Church's authority given to it by God to determine the canon.

I provided a pretty large response on the disagreement earlier in this thread. That would be a good starting point. But really a quick google search shows just how mixed the response was towards these books.

And as with Faithful Ag, the question is not whether they were included or not, but as to their status and Jerome gave them the name Apocrypha because they were disputed texts.




But you're conflating church fathers with One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church. Magisterial teaching is not a Chinese menu of Saint quotes to pick from here and there on this and that.

Yes...I don't believe in or support your claim of magisterial authority. So their claims aren't particularly relevant and it "should" be even more concerning to you when you have to essentially admit that their claims don't align with the early church.



Why mention Jerome at all then? That's kind of the point of the Magisterium. If you can't make a compelling argument for the formal sufficiency of scripture, which church father should I appeal to? Irenaeus on this one thing, Origen on another, and Luther for the things on which those two disagree?

You're making an argument that the modern magisterium existed in Jerome's time and I don't think that claim holds to any historical accuracy.

Jerome gets mentioned because he's essentially the father of the modern bible structure.
Bob Lee
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Bob Lee said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


When you say the "early church". Can you define your terms? That there was disagreement between some Church fathers is not the same as saying the Church. Jerome also did not reject all of the parts of Deuterocanonical books and he included all 7 in the Vulgate because he recognized the Church's authority given to it by God to determine the canon.

I provided a pretty large response on the disagreement earlier in this thread. That would be a good starting point. But really a quick google search shows just how mixed the response was towards these books.

And as with Faithful Ag, the question is not whether they were included or not, but as to their status and Jerome gave them the name Apocrypha because they were disputed texts.




But you're conflating church fathers with One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church. Magisterial teaching is not a Chinese menu of Saint quotes to pick from here and there on this and that.

Yes...I don't believe in or support your claim of magisterial authority. So their claims aren't particularly relevant and it "should" be even more concerning to you when you have to essentially admit that their claims don't align with the early church.



Why mention Jerome at all then? That's kind of the point of the Magisterium. If you can't make a compelling argument for the formal sufficiency of scripture, which church father should I appeal to? Irenaeus on this one thing, Origen on another, and Luther for the things on which those two disagree?

You're making an argument that the modern magisterium existed in Jerome's time and I don't think that claim holds to any historical accuracy.

Jerome gets mentioned because he's essentially the father of the modern bible structure.



"Modern magisterium existed in Jerome's time" is paradoxical. It's nonsense.
AgLiving06
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Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


No support provided? Are the books part of the Orthodox Bible? how did they get there? Were the books part of the Protestant bible? When were they taken out?

Your argument is that these books were not considered Biblical canon until the council of Trent. There are mountains of evidence to prove otherwise. If the early church didn't consider these biblical canon, why are they in everyone's Bible 1,000 years + before Trent?

Why were they removed from Protestant bibles AFTER Trent?

I don't actually believe the EO holds the same standard as Rome does.

A quick look at the St. Tikhon's Seminary says the following: "Although the Orthodox Church accepts these books as being canonical, and treasures them and uses them liturgically, she does not use them as primary sources in the definition of her dogmas."
----------

And you incorrectly state my argument. My argument is that while the Apocrypha was part of the Bible, it was held out as separate or different than the rest of the canon. What Trent does is novel in that it forces them as equals to the rest of the canon in all aspects. That is novel.

In terms of when they were removed, I go back to my very first post, that it was a mistake, but to try and associate the removal with the Reformation is incorrect as has been well established.


You could have stopped at "accepts these as canonical". If the Apocrypha is part of the Bible, and the Bible is God breathed how can it be removed?

It wasn't my quote.
Bob Lee
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AG
AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

Why didn't you bold and highlight this portion? Are you familiar with the history of the Church and what role the councils played in the formation of Christianity?

Why don't you tell us about all the Bishops who were in favor of Arianism? There were many. Tell me about the musings of St John Chrysostom on the Jews and how St Jerome thought that Satan would be reconciled one day. There are very holy people who get things wrong, which is why we rely on the Councils and the Magisterium.

The councils of Hippo and Carthage set the canon for Christianity; this is why the "apocrypha" is included in both Orthodox and Catholic scripture. Are there levels of "God-breathed"? Do we need to revise Timothy with saying "only some scripture is profitable"?



So it's now your claim that a local council set the canon for the entire church? That may be more novel than Trent trying to set the canon itself.

The rest really just supports the Protestant view. Church history is messy and there was rarely a uniform belief. To claim some singular viewpoint as Rome forces something on the fathers that just wasn't there.


Rome was specifically mentioned as being needed to confirm the scriptural canon proceeding the Council of Carthage. This is how the Church works, not by one monk deciding to add words, or remove books on his own authority, but by the Holy Spirit working through the Apostles of Christ, and their successors the Catholic Episcopate.







And yet the Synod of Laodicea which was held prior to this council determined the Apocrypha was not part of teh canon.

Canon 60:

These are all the books of Old Testament appointed to be read: 1, Genesis of the world;
2, The Exodus from Egypt; 3, Leviticus; 4, Numbers; 5, Deuteronomy; 6, Joshua, the son of Nun; 7, Judges, Ruth; 8, Esther; 9, Of the Kings, First and Second; 10, Of the Kings, Third and Fourth; 11, Chronicles, First and Second; 12, Esdras, First and Second; 13, The Book of Psalms; 14, The Proverbs of Solomon; 15, Ecclesiastes; 16, The Song of Songs; 17, Job; 18, The Twelve Prophets; 19, Isaiah; 20, Jeremiah, and Baruch, the Lamentations, and the Epistle; 21, Ezekiel; 22, Daniel.
And these are the books of the New Testament: Four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; The Acts of the Apostles; Seven Catholic Epistles, to wit, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude; Fourteen Epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.


So if we are going to suddenly claim the local councils are somehow dictating the doctrine of the entire church, things are going to get real interesting real quickly.

I do recall someone making the argument that the reason we shouldn't hold to councils as infallible is because they tend to contradict each other....

--------------------
So what you are asking us to do is ignore councils and prominent historical church fathers who disagree with something that not even Rome could get an actual majority for on their own vote.

That seems suspect.




We are not even certain that they discussed the canon of the Bible at the council of Laodicea, as it mainly focused on behavioral matters;. Either way you shouldn't hang your hat on this council as it was a very small regional council of about two dozen who may or may not have published a canon which excluded the book of Revelation. This was also not sent to Rome for confirmation, so was more of a Q&A forum, which is why no one talks about the council of Laodicea

And it appears we have no record of the Council of Hippo except for Carthage and yet you claim that as a source. Even with Carthage, there are seeming problems with some of the text that was added.

You're taking the stance that the only councils that are valid are the ones you agree with, which as I've already shown goes in direct contrast to the beliefs of many significant church fathers, who did not attend or even seem to agree with these councils.

What is abundantly clear is that the Apocrypha was around and that they were controversial books (by definition). Some groups affirmed them in some capacity, some did not.

This is why what Rome did at Trent is novel. Instead of taking the historical view, that is well documented, that these books were disputed and many did not see them as canon, but as useful, they forced them on par.


They had been on par for over a thousand years. They were included in Protestant bibles even after Trent and were only removed by publishers to save money on printing. Yes, it is embarrassing but you need to embrace it. You cannot argue that the so-called "apocrypha" was part of of the settled Biblical canon of all of Christianity for over 1000 years before the reformation. Your only argument is that some scripture isn't as important as other scripture. Again, is the Gospel of John more divinely inspired than Revelation? Than Acts?

Yeah, Not true and of course, no support provided.

Edit...And think of what you're saying. A group, after the fact, decided that the early church got it wrong...That the earliest Fathers, and maybe the Apostles just didn't understand the proper canon, but 500+ years later, they were suddenly definitive on those books.

That's the argument you want to make?


No support provided? Are the books part of the Orthodox Bible? how did they get there? Were the books part of the Protestant bible? When were they taken out?

Your argument is that these books were not considered Biblical canon until the council of Trent. There are mountains of evidence to prove otherwise. If the early church didn't consider these biblical canon, why are they in everyone's Bible 1,000 years + before Trent?

Why were they removed from Protestant bibles AFTER Trent?

I don't actually believe the EO holds the same standard as Rome does.

A quick look at the St. Tikhon's Seminary says the following: "Although the Orthodox Church accepts these books as being canonical, and treasures them and uses them liturgically, she does not use them as primary sources in the definition of her dogmas."
----------

And you incorrectly state my argument. My argument is that while the Apocrypha was part of the Bible, it was held out as separate or different than the rest of the canon. What Trent does is novel in that it forces them as equals to the rest of the canon in all aspects. That is novel.

In terms of when they were removed, I go back to my very first post, that it was a mistake, but to try and associate the removal with the Reformation is incorrect as has been well established.


You could have stopped at "accepts these as canonical". If the Apocrypha is part of the Bible, and the Bible is God breathed how can it be removed?

It wasn't my quote.



But how do you answer his question? Do you agree with him that we should not add or remove books from the Bible?
Dies Irae
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The quote is not the issue here dude
Zobel
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AG
Dies Irae said:

Zobel said:

There's tiers within scripture. The Torah stands over the OT as a whole, the NT stands over the OT, the Gospels stand over the NT as a whole. It doesn't need to be so contentious. It's ok that the apocrypha are a tier apart.


Not okay to remove books from the Bible however. God-breathed is God-breathed. Obviously the books of the Gospel are the top tier; but that doesn't make the other books matter less.


I agree to a certain amount… but the churches which didn't historically have certain books in their canon didn't suffer for it. The Faith was delivered once for all to the saints, not the Bible. The only reason this is an issue is because of sola scriptura, which is why it became contentious so late in church history.
AgLiving06
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Zobel said:

There's tiers within scripture. The Torah stands over the OT as a whole, the NT stands over the OT, the Gospels stand over the NT as a whole. It doesn't need to be so contentious. It's ok that the apocrypha are a tier apart.

That's essential Chemnitz argument in his response to Trent.

He couldn't understand why they would take such a hard stance to remove any tier status.

Dies Irae
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Zobel said:

Dies Irae said:

Zobel said:

There's tiers within scripture. The Torah stands over the OT as a whole, the NT stands over the OT, the Gospels stand over the NT as a whole. It doesn't need to be so contentious. It's ok that the apocrypha are a tier apart.


Not okay to remove books from the Bible however. God-breathed is God-breathed. Obviously the books of the Gospel are the top tier; but that doesn't make the other books matter less.


I agree to a certain amount… but the churches which didn't historically have certain books in their canon didn't suffer for it. The Faith was delivered once for all to the saints, not the Bible. The only reason this is an issue is because of sola scriptura, which is why it became contentious so late in church history.


I don't see how that's possible. If all scripture is divinely inspired and proper for teaching/refutation/correction/training in righteousness; it seems like they must have suffered for it; given the lack.
Redstone
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AG
Protestants: what, as specific as you can, is the "word of God" ?
Zobel
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AG
Did the first church in Jerusalem suffer without the epistles of Paul before he wrote them? Was the East somehow lacking for not using Revelation?

Every church in history has had the scriptures they needed.
Dies Irae
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Zobel said:

Did the first church in Jerusalem suffer without the epistles of Paul before he wrote them? Was the East somehow lacking for not using Revelation?

Every church in history has had the scriptures they needed.


That kind of reminds me of the thought experiment In Dante's Purgatorio. Dante is saddened because the Virtuous Pagans are only able to rise to Limbo, yet Ovid says not to pity them because they don't know what they're missing.

So I would say "yes" they were the lesser for it whether they knew it or not.
one MEEN Ag
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AG
The Bible (TM) is the crown jewel tradition of the Church. Its writing, preservation, studying, copying, and sharing of the teachings of God are some of the central functions of the Church. The Church existed before a canonized bible, or before any of the new testament was written.

Canon is always such a weird discussion. Canon is just a $10 word to describe that something held authority within a group. And that authority is a reflection of the respect given by the people within the group.

If I wrote you a list of the top 100 rock bands of all time and it didn't have Led Zepplin, Pink Floyd, Rolling Stones, etc you would absolutely reject that list. Your experience with these bands is paramount to accepting or rejecting this list. And just like a rock list, we might disagree very much so on the last 20, but the top 20 is going to be pretty concrete across a wide enough sample size.

You can absolutely look back and go, 'these texts were viewed authoritatively by the biblical people at the time of its creation. And the church has preserved them so there is at least a continuum of people respecting them, and investing in them to make copies.'

Church is not just something you read, its something you do. 90% of all church goers across time could not read. You spend enough time in church, you pick up on the liturgy and the liturgical calendar. Orthodoxy has held that there are three main tiers: Books to read in church, books to read at home, and books not to read. apocrypha (which means to be read privately) are great books that are divinely inspired, and they do great works in your heart when you read them to yourself. They are not central to the arc of God's interaction with man (this does not mean they are not important).
one MEEN Ag
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AG
As a sidenote, this thread and the campus police thread on weed are getting me very confused when I quickly click bookmarked links to see updates.
Faithful Ag
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AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:


the historical evidence supporting my claim is what you stated directly below. The Books were there. Whatever disputes between individual church fathers or Bishops there may have been early on, the Church left the books there, and in fact insisted they remain there to which Jerome submitted.
Which is just attempting to set up a straw-man in the end. Nobody disputes that. That you keep acting like this is meaningful is just something I don't understand.

And to not mention that Jerome gave the name Apocrypha is to be very selective with history.
What is meaningful is that Jerome, despite his personal views, understood that his view was the minority view, was opposed to the Church's view, and was possibly wrong - which is why Jerome put his opinion aside and followed the judgement of the church.

What is also meaningful is that the day Luther was born the books were there. For whatever reasons, the books were there and had been there for more than 1,000 years. Luther decided to elevate himself and his ideas to be on the level of the church and on the level of Jerome (or actually above them).

AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:


You are still saying something different here. The Holy Spirit guided the Church. The infallible source is the Holy Spirit which guides and protects the church infallibly. Through this Church (Bishops), and as a part of her Sacred Tradition, we have received the Scriptures and we can have confidence in their reliability and accuracy. In order for the Scriptures to hold and maintain their place as an infallible source you must have the correct books AND an infallible interpretation. The only way this can happen is through the church which objectively kept the books there.


You've now changed your argument. This was your initial statement:

Faithful Ag said:

"Step 1: While there is not a divinely inspired table of contents or order of books, the books that were in there were in fact already in an order that was determined by the church, guided by the Holy Spirit. Then an individual man decided to change that in a significant way while also adding his warning that these 7 books are not equal to scripture. The 7 books were in fact moved from where they historically were"


Your claim originally is now materially different then your original claim, presumably to try and avoid the problem you walked into.

From your original claim, if it's your claim that the Holy Spirit determined the order of the canon, then it's just as easy to assume he guided the creation of the only infallible source we would need.
i honestly have no idea what you are trying to say or what problem you think I've walked into. I have been entirely consistent, but again you are trying to rephrase what i am saying and shifting the meaning to say something i never said. It is really frustrating because we spend so much effort trying to clarify and undo what you have confused because you don't stay on your own paper, but instead you're trying to write on mine for me.

You are attempting to cut the Church's role out and go from the Holy Spirit directly to the Canon to order of books. It doesn't work that way.

What I have consistently said is that the Church is the pillar and foundation of truth, and the Church was and is guided by the Holy Spirit, and the Church was given authority by Christ and the promise to lead the Church into all truth until the end of the ages. This promise did not expire when the apostles died, or a few hundred years later, or during the thousand years before Luther, and it remains today.

It was never my claim that the Holy Spirit gave us the canon directly or determined the order of the books directly. The Holy Spirit guided and worked through fallible men (the church) to lead the church into collecting and discerning what is scripture, and the church is the proper and only authority for that role. Individual church fathers do not hold the same level of authority which is why Jerome put aside his personal view in favor of what the judgement of the churches made.

For more than a thousand years there was not real controversy with regard to the Dueterocanon. It was kind of like the Eastern approach that allowed believers some latitude on the "levels of scripture (canonical vs. ecclesiastical). The Church, in her wisdom and guided by the Holy Spirit, kept them in the Bible. Luther and the Reformation re-introduced the whole controversy in a way that required the church to make a more formalized declaration on the books. The Church must always defend the faith and that is what happened at Trent.

Yes, an anathema was attached to the decision - but an anathema simply means you are cut off from the church (it does not damn someone to hell). Trent basically said if you do not agree with the Church, you are now outside the Church.

AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:


No. I presuppose nothing. The facts are simple. Luther decided to make changes to what he had received through the Church because Luther thought he knew better than the collective church. You do not deny these facts, you just want to justify his reasoning and justify his position. My question is where did Luther derive the authority to do what he did? Jerome did not claim this type of authority, but somehow Luther knew more or had a better view of the "historical view" some 1200 years

You absolutely presuppose that a single canon order existed and was divinely inspired. That it is likely that Rome simply relied on Jeromes Vulgate as an order does not equate to divinely inspired. You can argue it's a tradition at most, but not some holy thing.
What I presuppose is that Luther started with something and that something included the books and they were in an accepted order. I have never, not once, stated that a single canon order existed and was divinely inspired. You have projected that onto me but that's kind of what you tend to do in these discussions. What I have said is that the Church, guided by the Holy Spirit, the Church has given to us the Scriptures. The Bible is a product of the Church and her Sacred Tradition. No individual can stand in the place of the Church - not Athanasius, not Jerome, not Augustine, and not Luther. The first 3 understood this, but Luther blazed his own path and placed himself and his views and interpretations above and against those of the Church.

AgLiving06 said:

Faithful Ag said:


How could Luther have mandated his order be followed? It's almost comical to compare Luther, an individual man, to the collective Church and her Bishops. The whole point is that Luther had NO AUTHORITY to do what he did. That authority was placed with the Church and her Bishops, which was forced to make a declarative decision because of the confusion Luther introduced (or re-introduced if you will).

You misread. He didn't mandate anything. In fact, from the research I did today, what made his Bible a hit was it was written in the common language. Rome desperately tried to get versions translated into German, but because they were based on the vulgate, they failed to translate cleanly.
my response was directed more to your offense at the anathemas that Trent placed on those who reject the Deuterocanonical books. Luther didn't have the authority to place an anathema on those who accept them because Luther was just an individual. Luther was not in an authoritative position but the Church was and is.
AgLiving06
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Quote:

What is meaningful is that Jerome, despite his personal views, understood that his view was the minority view, was opposed to the Church's view, and was possibly wrong - which is why Jerome put his opinion aside and followed the judgement of the church.

This is not true. To claim it was a minority position is simply incorrect and against history.

Quote:

What is also meaningful is that the day Luther was born the books were there. For whatever reasons, the books were there and had been there for more than 1,000 years. Luther decided to elevate himself and his ideas to be on the level of the church and on the level of Jerome (or actually above them).

Can you make a claim that is not a straw-man or supported by actual facts?

If you want to claim that "the day Luther was born the books were there," then you need to be honest and also say that "the day Luther died, the books were there." Anything short of that makes conversation with you essentially worthless because it's built on falsehoods.

Quote:

Yes, an anathema was attached to the decision - but an anathema simply means you are cut off from the church (it does not damn someone to hell). Trent basically said if you do not agree with the Church, you are now outside the Church.[/quote[

Oh it only means your cut off from the church....so nonchalant to kick a significant portion of Christian history out of the church for something you can't even back up with historical support...

Quote:

my response was directed more to your offense at the anathemas that Trent placed on those who reject the Deuterocanonical books. Luther didn't have the authority to place an anathema on those who accept them because Luther was just an individual. Luther was not in an authoritative position but the Church was and is

And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns.



PabloSerna
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AG
"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?
Faithful Ag
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I'll respond to the whole post when I have a little more time but I would say with regard to anathema's - it is not the church cutting people off from God. It is the Church making it clear what the Church believes, and if one cannot or will not assent to what the Church believes or professes then that person knows clearly that they are outside the Church.

The church says what it believes and the individual can choose for themself where they stand.
Dies Irae
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Faithful Ag said:

I'll respond to the whole post when I have a little more time but I would say with regard to anathema's - it is not the church cutting people off from God. It is the Church making it clear what the Church believes, and if one cannot or will not assent to what the Church believes or professes then that person knows clearly that they are outside the Church.

The church says what it believes and the individual can choose for themself where they stand.





Best excommunication scene of all time.
AgLiving06
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PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.

Dies Irae
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AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?
AgLiving06
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Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?

A great many people have spoken and will speak for the Church.

Dies Irae
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AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?

A great many people have spoken and will speak for the Church.




I understand that given your position it is extremely difficult to give a straight answer but the purposeful vagueness of your responses does nothing to further the discussion.

How do we vet them? The Lutherans have transsexual lesbians claiming the Eucharistic nature of abortion. You have the Anglicans consecrating genderqueers. Who has the authority to say "this is not okay"
Faithful Ag
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AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?

A great many people have spoken and will speak for the Church.

and exactly how does someone know when one of these great many people are speaking for the church vs. appearing to be of God while deceiving their audience?
AgLiving06
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Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?

A great many people have spoken and will speak for the Church.




I understand that given your position it is extremely difficult to give a straight answer but the purposeful vagueness of your responses does nothing to further the discussion.

How do we vet them? The Lutherans have transsexual lesbians claiming the Eucharistic nature of abortion. You have the Anglicans consecrating genderqueers. Who has the authority to say "this is not okay"

I'm not being vague at all.

And your examples are disgusting, but not surprising. Are you going to pretend Rome doesn't have the same issues, and in some case worse?

Lets talk about the German Catholic Bishops who now bless same sex unions. Or we could talk about Popes and their kids? Or the child sex scandal with Roman Priests?

Shoot, I believe right now there's a Roman Catholic Priest on the run for grooming an 18 yr old girl.

So no, I'm not being vague. The Church has had its defenders rise when it was necessary.
AgLiving06
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Faithful Ag said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?

A great many people have spoken and will speak for the Church.

and exactly how does someone know when one of these great many people are speaking for the church vs. appearing to be of God while deceiving their audience?

Certainly not through unilateral decision making as Rome uses. It declared itself the infallible interpreter and then of course interprets the way it wants without a check. It's a nice circular arrangement.

But how do they do it? Certainly not through appeals to some unwritten tradition, one of many that never seem to align.

The correct answer of course is to look to the Scriptures first and then look to the traditions, the very definition of Sola Scriptura. Will there be disagreements? Yes and for much of Church history, that has been acceptable on a wide range of beliefs and doctrines.
Dies Irae
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AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

Dies Irae said:

AgLiving06 said:

PabloSerna said:

"And this is the actual crux. The misbelief that Rome has the authority to cut people off from God. Its this misbelief that led to the great schism and to the subsequent issues. It's the primary issue that will continue to separate the church, likely until Christ returns."

+++

How do you answer Christ's words to the Apostles when he says (Mt 18:18-20) "Truly I tell you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven."

Authority or no authority?

The problem that you and Faithful Ag and others have is this misconception that Rome speaks for the entire Christian Church.




Who speaks for the Churches that make up the Body of Christ?

A great many people have spoken and will speak for the Church.




I understand that given your position it is extremely difficult to give a straight answer but the purposeful vagueness of your responses does nothing to further the discussion.

How do we vet them? The Lutherans have transsexual lesbians claiming the Eucharistic nature of abortion. You have the Anglicans consecrating genderqueers. Who has the authority to say "this is not okay"

I'm not being vague at all.

And your examples are disgusting, but not surprising. Are you going to pretend Rome doesn't have the same issues, and in some case worse?

Lets talk about the German Catholic Bishops who now bless same sex unions. Or we could talk about Popes and their kids? Or the child sex scandal with Roman Priests?

Shoot, I believe right now there's a Roman Catholic Priest on the run for grooming an 18 yr old girl.

So no, I'm not being vague. The Church has had its defenders rise when it was necessary.


I'm not calling attention to Protestants who do bad things, everyone does bad things, I'm calling attention to Protestant "clergy" who are enthusiastically supported by their sect who are clearly outwardly championing and living contra Christianity.

And no you're not answering ANY of these questions. You're just saying "they'll come when they need it any we'll know them
When we see them" and you wonder why you have infinite numbers of sects and infinite personal interpretations guiding atomized "flocks".

I'm watching the Astros right now and some dude named Mark Shook and his wife are both "pastors" of their church, I wasn't aware that women could be Pastors, but they seem fine with it. Their commercial shows a lot of concerts, tattooed guys dancing around the stage, and some plays. How do I know this guy is legit? He's obviously a multi-millionaire so someone is buying what he's selling.
Dies Irae
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Point of order, I believe Christ declared them the infallible interpreter when he said what Peter bound and loosed on earth would be bound and loosed in heaven. Peter then passed on this charism as did the other Apostles.
 
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