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There's no historical evidence of a mass conversion
Uh, you sure about this?
I'd start with Sand's Invention of the Jewish People.
Second, maybe look into when Yemen was a major Jewish power. And also much of North Africa.
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There's no historical evidence of a mass conversion
Redstone said:
The mists of time obscure much.
But this we know, that before the massive sweep of Islam (many converts to Rabbinic Judaism in Arabia, btw) -
that Apostolic / Arian Christianity "versus" Rabbinic Judaism struggled against one another mightily for converts. Both religious sentiments aggressively sent missions all over the known world, from Spain to what is now India and China, and into the Sahara.
Related - we don't have the ability, at present, to trace genetic markers into pre-Islam. Reich talked about this in a joking fashion referenced above, one reason why he hasn't exactly been embraced by interested Jewish commentators with platforms.
one MEEN Ag said:
Sapper,
The temple was supposed to be the center of the jewish faith. Just because the Saduccees were corrupted and the Pharisee's decided to remove themselves from temple sacrifices does not remove the centrality of the temple to the faith.
Norms versus descriptions here.
Redstone said:
That's simply inaccurate. Entire kingdoms converted. Over the course of a millennium.
Sand is my primary source, the Israeli history professor, and indisputably one of the world authorities on this topic.
who has argued that?Quote:
To say there's no significant and lasting continuity in theology and practice and belief after the destruction of the Temple is just not factually accurate.
Zobel said:who has argued that?Quote:
To say there's no significant and lasting continuity in theology and practice and belief after the destruction of the Temple is just not factually accurate.
Zobel said:
To say that Christianity is a newer religion than Judaism requires a very specific interpretation of what Judaism is and requires ignoring the continuity while emphasizing the change. What's your point?
Zobel said:
You didn't answer the question. Who has argued that there's no significant and lasting continuity in theology and practice and belief after the destruction of the Temple?
The Trinity is everywhere present in the NT (as well as the old for that matter) which itself a product of second temple Judaism.
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A CONCLUSION strongly suggests itself: if we wish to evaluate "Judaism" and "Christianity" in the first centuries C.E. from a historian's point of view, we need to stay away from the dogmatic notion of two firmly established religions, the one defined by its ultimate triumph over Judaism after it became the religion of the Christian statewith all its horrible consequences for the Jewsand the other defined by the victory of the rabbis over their enemies from within and from without. In doing so, we will discover that there is no single line or single point in the first centuries of the Christian era that distinguished Judaism and Christianity once and forever. There are several lines and several points.
The binitarian idea of two divine powers does not constitute a definite line of demarcation between the faithsbut the Trinitarian idea of three divine powers does.
that's just like, your opinion man.Quote:
The trinity is only there if you choose to interpret certain verses as it being there. There's no history of a Jewish tradition of a three-in-one God. It's a Christian tradition that is central to Christian orthodoxy and a clear break with prior traditions.