John 6 and The Doctrine of Transubstantiation

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GQaggie
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AG
I've been a longtime lurker on this board, very rarely popping my head up to post, so let me start off by apologizing for such a lengthy post. The TLDR version is two paragraphs down.

Now moving on... I have noticed that a discussion of the Eucharist has made its way into several threads over the last couple of months. Though I was casually familiar with the subject, I had no special interest in the doctrine of transubstantiation, but posts by K2, Swimmer, and several of the Catholics have piqued my interest and caused me to look at the matter more closely. John 6 has come up multiple times in those discussions, so I would like to focus on that section of Scripture and look at it in more detail.

First, to establish the context within which the rest of my post will fit, I will state my conclusion. I do not believe that John 6 teaches that the bread and fruit of the vine become His literal physical body and blood. I believe that Jesus is using the physical to teach a lesson about the spiritual.

In the first fourteen verses of the chapter, Jesus feeds the multitude following Him from five loaves of bread and two fish obtained from a child. Of note, vs. 2 states the multitude was following Him because they saw Him heal the sick. The context of this miracle and the crowd's reason for following Him form the starting point of His discussion with them the next day.

The following day, the people again find Jesus, and the interaction resumes in vs. 25. In vs. 26 Jesus tells the people that they sought after Him because they ate of the loaves and were filled, but He instructs them to work not for food that perishes but, rather, work for the food that endures to eternal life. He is contrasting the temporal bread (i.e. the bread they ate the previous day) with eternal bread that He will give them. The people are incredulous and request a sign, stating that their fathers had received bread from heaven in the form of manna. Jesus then states that the Father gives you the true bread from heaven, and it is He who comes down and gives life unto the world. He has now made a second contrast, this time between manna and this eternal bread.

The people, intrigued by the prospect of this new heavenly bread ask Christ to give it to them always. He then drops the bombshell that He is the bread of life, and that those who come to Him will never hunger and those that believe will never thirst. Here is a third, albeit an implied, contrast. He is contrasting the temporary relief from hunger provided by physical bread with the eternal relief provided by the bread of life.

In vss. 36-40, he explains that His purpose in coming was to do the will of the Father and that it included giving everlasting life to those who believe in Him. Beginning in vs. 41, the people begin complaining that Jesus, a man whose origins are known to them, is claiming to have come down from Heaven. Jesus then states that no one can come to Him unless the Father draws that person and that He is the source of everlasting life.

He then picks back up the bread comparison in vs. 48 by stating, "I am the bread of life." He states that their fathers who ate the manna are dead, but that this bread which has come down from heaven will result in the one who eats of it not dying. He is now more forceful and detailed regarding the above mentioned third contrast. If you eat manna, which produces only temporary benefits, you will die. If you eat this new bread from heaven, which produces eternal benefits, you will not die.

It is with this contrast that we can clearly see now the physical vs. spiritual nature of His argument. With the prior two contrasts, one could argue that perhaps Christ was talking about a special type of physical bread that allowed you to live forever. Certainly, this was not the only time he made a similar contrast that resulted in such a thought. The Samaritan woman at the well mistakenly understood Him in physical terms when she wanted to know about the water that cured your thirst forever. However, with Jesus elaborating on this third contrast, it becomes obvious that the eternal life is not physical. Obviously Christians have continued to die physically over the last two millennia, so the contrast between dying and not dying must be one of physical death vs spiritual life.

The analogy then, is this: physical bread:physical death::heavenly bread:spiritual life. If we have a contrast between physical and spiritual on the right side of the analogy, it is natural to conclude that we have a contrast between physical and spiritual on the left side. The heavenly bread is not physical, for physical bread does not grant eternal life; it is spiritual in nature.

According to those who believe in transubstantiation, it is the next few verses that pose the biggest problem to my position. In vss. 53 and 54, Jesus states that one must eat His flesh and drink His blood to have eternal life. Vs. 55 then states that His flesh is true food and his blood true drink. Much is made regarding this word for "true," the Greek word alethos. According to Thayer the word means "truly, of a truth, in reality, most certainly." In other words, Jesus is saying that His flesh really is food and blood really is drink. What He doesn't say is that they are really physical food and physical drink. One may reasonably state that words should be taken literally unless the context indicates otherwise. I have already shown how the context is clearly a contrast between the physical and the spiritual, thus the context provides much more support for interpreting this as spiritual food rather than physical food. In other words, His flesh really is spiritual food and His blood really is spiritual drink.

I know that those to whom I am primarily speaking put much greater weight in how ancient Christians interpreted scripture, so I have included a commentary on this passage by Tertullian (emphasis mine).


Quote:

They thought His discourse was harsh and intolerable, supposing that He had really and literally enjoined on them to eat his flesh, He, with the view of ordering the state of salvation as a spiritual thing, set out with the principle, It is the spirit that quickens; and then added, The flesh profits nothing meaning, of course, to the giving of life. He also goes on to explain what He would have us to understand by spirit: The words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. In a like sense He had previously said: He that hears my words, and believes in Him that sent me, has everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation, but shall pass from death unto life. Constituting, therefore, His word as the life-giving principle, because that word is spirit and life, He likewise called His flesh by the same appellation; because, too, the Word had become flesh, We ought therefore to desire Him in order that we may have life, and to devour Him with the ear, and to ruminate on Him with the understanding, and to digest Him by faith. (On the Resurrection of the Flesh 37)

Edit: I know no one likes when someone makes a long post and then never responds to replies. I may not have the opportunity to post as often as some, but I will make an effort to see this discussion to its conclusion.
Zobel
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AG
Thanks for posting.

What you're suggesting is what I would call an either : or dichotomy. That is, we must believe that Christ's body is spiritual bread OR physical bread. I think this is a false dichotomy -- it is both.

There's nothing that precludes Christ from speaking here in a way that illustrates what He will later expound on.

Further, I want to clarify that the doctrine of transubstantiation is a medieval western doctrine. The East has n such thing. The eastern fathers use a great many words to describe what is an ineffable mystery. Here's an example of catechism lectures by St Cyril of Jerusalem. This is the dogma: it is His body and blood, in a real way. Beyond that, it is a mystery.

Quote:

1. Even of itself the teaching of the Blessed Paul is sufficient to give you a full assurance concerning those Divine Mysteries, of which having been deemed worthy, you have become of the same body and blood with Christ. For you have just heard him say distinctly, That our Lord Jesus Christ in the night in which He was betrayed, took bread, and when He had given thanks He broke it, and gave to His disciples, saying, Take, eat, this is My Body: and having taken the cup and given thanks, He said, Take, drink, this is My Blood. Since then He Himself declared and said of the Bread, This is My Body, who shall dare to doubt any longer? And since He has Himself affirmed and said, This is My Blood, who shall ever hesitate, saying, that it is not His blood?

2. He once in Cana of Galilee, turned the water into wine, akin to blood , and is it incredible that He should have turned wine into blood? When called to a bodily marriage, He miraculously wrought that wonderful work; and on the children of the bride-chamber Matthew 9:15, shall He not much rather be acknowledged to have bestowed the fruition of His Body and Blood ?

3. Wherefore with full assurance let us partake as of the Body and Blood of Christ: for in the figure of Bread is given to you His Body, and in the figure of Wine His Blood; that you by partaking of the Body and Blood of Christ, may be made of the same body and the same blood with Him. For thus we come to bear Christ in us, because His Body and Blood are distributed through our members; thus it is that, according to the blessed Peter, we become partakers of the divine nature 2 Peter 1:4 .

4. Christ on a certain occasion discoursing with the Jews said, Except you eat My flesh and drink My blood, you have no life in you. John 6:53 They not having heard His saying in a spiritual sense were offended, and went back, supposing that He was inviting them to eat flesh.

It's fine to quote Tertullian, but you're making the same false dichotomy here. Salvation is a spiritual thing, yes; but also a physical.

That same Tertullian argued FOR the real presence in the Eucharist as a means to refute the gnostic heresy of Marcion. Gnostics taught that the spiritual was good and all flesh was bad, and that therefore Christ either did not truly come in flesh, or that the flesh was not divine, a vessel, etc. For this reason they did not take the Eucharist. Here you can read an argument where he says:
Quote:

Then, having taken the bread and given it to His disciples, He made it His own body, by saying, "This is my body," that is, the figure of my body. A figure, however, there could not have been, unless there were first a veritable body. An empty thing, or phantom, is incapable of a figure. If, however, (as Marcion might say,) He pretended the bread was His body, because He lacked the truth of bodily substance, it follows that He must have given bread for us.
In another place, he writes:

Quote:

Similarly, too, touching the days of Stations [i.e., fasts], most think that they must not be present at the sacrificial prayers, on the ground that the Station must be dissolved by reception of the Lord's Body. Does, then, the Eucharist cancel a service devoted to God, or bind it more to God? Will not your Station be more solemn if you have withal stood at God's altar? When the Lord's Body has been received and reserved each point is secured, both the participation of the sacrifice and the discharge of duty.

He also wrote of the Prodigal son:

Quote:

The ring also he is then wont to receive for the first time, wherewith, after being interrogated, he publicly seals the agreement of faith, and thus thenceforward feeds upon the fatness of the Lord's bodythe Eucharist, to wit.

Clearly Tertullian did not think he only gave bread for us.

If the early Church didn't believe in the real presence, I would challenge you to two things:

1. Find me a supporting writing saying that the Eucharist is bad (unless you think the gnostics were right, in which case we must come to the conclusion that the church rapidly fell into complete apostasy. I don't think "no one has any truth" is your point). If what you're saying is true and we are all doing it wrong... what a travesty! East and west, from Lyon (St Irenaeus) to Carthage (Tertullian) to Rome (St Justin, St Hippolytus) to Antioch (St Ignatius) to Alexandria (St Clement)... every single one got it wrong. No one ever said "um, hey, guys... this is a little...weird, don't you think?"

2. Explain why people were always accusing early Christians of cannibalism?

As an aside -- Hippolytus of Rome gives us a detailed view into Christian Liturgy (215 AD). He is clear when he contrasts the antidoron to the Eucharist ("Yet it is not the Eucharist, like the body of the Lord."). And the amazing thing to me is even some details of the Liturgy, the words of the bishop, lifting up our hearts, it is meet and right to worship etc are word for word preserved in our Liturgy today.
jkag89
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Quote:

1. Find me a supporting writing saying that the Eucharist is bad (unless you think the gnostics were right, in which case we must come to the conclusion that the church rapidly fell into complete apostasy. I don't think "no one has any truth" is your point). If what you're saying is true and we are all doing it wrong... what a travesty! East and west, from Lyon (St Irenaeus) to Carthage (Tertullian) to Rome (St Justin, St Hippolytus) to Antioch (St Ignatius) to Alexandria (St Clement)... every single one got it wrong. No one ever said "um, hey, guys... this is a little...weird, don't you think?"
Exactly, if all these Fathers are wrong, they are blasphemously wrong in encouraging the faithful to worship an idol of bread and wine. Yet no remotely orthodox Christian of the time writes against the Eucharist as idolatry. Everyone who writes on the subject writes in a way that is compatible with Catholic/Orthodox/Lutheran thought, oftentimes in ways that are undeniably explicit in teaching the Real Presence.
GQaggie
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AG

Quote:


What you're suggesting is what I would call an either : or dichotomy. That is, we must believe that Christ's body is spiritual bread OR physical bread. I think this is a false dichotomy -- it is both
I concede I have set up a dichotomy, but I believe it is well-supported by the context. Here is how I see the analogy: physical bread:physical death::spiritual bread:spiritual life.
I think we would agree on three of the four classifications. Clearly, the bread He had fed them with and the manna their fathers' had eaten were examples of physical bread, and Christ states that they still died a physical death. Also clear is that He is describing spiritual life on the opposite side of the analogy, because Christians have continued to experience physical death. That leaves only the "spiritual bread" designation up for debate. It seems unlikely, given the clear meaning of the other three items in the analogy, He would now assign a dual meaning to this item.

Additionally, you only have to go two chapters back to John 4 to see Christ make a similar comparison. He is speaking with a Samaritan woman at a water well and states in vss 13 and 14, "Everyone who drinks of this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks of the water that I will give him will never be thirsty again. The water that I will give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life." This is clearly spiritual water being contrasted with physical water and physical thirst being contrasted with spiritual quenching. The similarities in His illustration here and the one in John 6 again provide a context that supports a spiritual bread.


Quote:

Further, I want to clarify that the doctrine of transubstantiation is a medieval western doctrine. The East has n such thing. The eastern fathers use a great many words to describe what is an ineffable mystery. Here's an example of catechism lectures by St Cyril of Jerusalem. This is the dogma: it is His body and blood, in a real way. Beyond that, it is a mystery.


Thanks for the clarification. Perhaps a more accurate title to the thread would have been John 6 and The Doctrine of the Real Presence. My knowledge on the doctrine to this point has been too superficial to appreciate the nuance here.

I don't have the time at the moment to go into detail on discussing the quotes that were mentioned, but I will address those once I get the chance.
Zobel
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St Photini (the woman at the well) was not told "this water is the water of which I speak". And she didn't ask Him several times and He told her "truly I tell you".

If your interpretation is correct (since that's what you want to talk about, probably because literally any other evidence is not in your favor) then let's "analyze" it.

Why stop your exegesis with v58? Why did He continue to teach -- even more explicit and outrageous claims -- when He knew the people were grumbling (v41)? St Photini didn't find his teaching in Ch 4 difficult; why was this so difficult then, if He was just talking about spiritual food? And then again, He makes it more explicit in after they start to argue in v52. Why did He have to go and then ask His disciples if they would leave Him over this? First the people were grumbling, and now his loyal followers were. He tells them: "the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life" and then many of them left! Now we have reduced it to the Twelve, who stayed with Him. This is not unlike the story of Gideon's 300 men in Judges 7. Tell me what is so difficult about His analogy?

Look, there are multiple readings of many scriptural texts that are supportable. Eunomians used lots of scripture to "prove" that Christ was not the same essence as the Father. Arius used lots of scripture to "prove" that there was a time when Christ was not. St St Gregory the Theologian told those who would use dialectic / reason / logic applied to the scriptures to attack the teaching of the Church: "Let faith lead us rather than reason" and "faith is that which completes our argument". At the end of the day the tightness of the argument does not matter - what matters is whether the point being put forward represents the truth. This is the key problem with the modern approach to scriptural exegesis; without a lens to read scripture to, we are left using mere intellectual belief to ratify matters of faith.
Zobel
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AG
Just curious. Were you pro or anti real presence at the start of this evaluation?
Ags4DaWin
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Just my take, you should know that I am not a Catholic or orthodox and while I have done quite abit of studying of various sects as well as on the scriptures themselves I by no means claim to be a bible scholar.

I am pretty firmly in the anti-transubstantiation camp.

1st: Christ speaks metaphorically and symbolically throughout his ministry. He taught in parables and used metaphors constantly. He did this to hide the meaning and greater truths of the gospel rather than spell them out. You know the saying about casting pearls before swine. It's a great way to teach. If you make someone work for knowledge and wisdom they value it more. But also, by speaking metaphorically and symbolically gives greater meaning to the truths he taught. Because he knew that his teachings would have to begin as an oral tradition and written later he needs to make his lessons memorable and lasting. Symbols accomplish these goals. The fact that Jesus constantly speaks using metaphors makes it very plausible that he was doing so in instructing his apostles in the communion ceremony.

2) judeoChristian rituals tend serve 1 of 2 purposes: 1) either the ritual is intended to have spiritual ramifications (baptism) which are necessary to sanctify something or accomplish a spiritual end necessary to the saving of a person's soul 2) the ritual is designed to serve as a reminder of a covenant with the lord, a reminder of a historic event in the church, pass down a tradition that conveys a truth of some sort. Sometimes a ritual is serves both purposes. As I believe is the case with communion. More on that later.

3: look at the context of what was written. First, what throughout the bible does Christ use bread/his body and wine/water symbolizs throughout his ministry.

A) The body of Christ is used to symbolize the church itself. In 1 Cor 12-27 it reads 26If one part suffers, every part suffers with it; if one part is honored, every part rejoices with it. 27Now you are the body of Christ, and each of you is a member of it. There are many more examples of this so I will not expunge on that too much. Eating In the JudeoChristian tradition could symbolize one of 2 things: either destruction of something or taking something external to yourself and making it a part of you. A common theme throughout the New Testament is each Christian becoming a part of the body of Christ and one with the church. The ritual of the communion here is symbolic in that as you take communion you are symbolically proclaiming yourself a Christian. By eating the bread, you are eating the "body of Christ" and taking upon yourself the name of Christ, declaring yourself his follower and committing to be a member of his church, making the body of Christ part of your body, bringing the very essence of the church into yourself, making it an integral part of your life.
1st Cor 10:16-17
The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?17 For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.

Clearly here Paul is equating the bread of communion to the body of Christ, stating very clearly the symbolism here. The bread is the church (body of Christ) and when we as Christians take it, we are declaring that we belong to Christ's church.

2) wine: wine/water is often used to symbolize the gospel and word of God. John 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting life. Water/drink or in the case of communion wine symbolizes the word of God or the New Testament which gives eternal life. In fact Jesus comes close to saying this plainly almost word for word in every discussion of the last supper. Matthew 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. Mark 14:24 Just my take, you should know that I am not a Catholic or orthodox and while I have done quite abit of studying of various sects as well as on the scriptures themselves I by no means claim to be a bible scholar.

I am pretty firmly in the anti-transubstantiation camp.

1st: Christ speaks metaphorically and symbolically throughout his ministry. He taught in parables and used metaphors constantly. He did this to hide the meaning and greater truths of the gospel rather than spell them out. You know the saying about casting pearls before swine. It's a great way to teach. If you make someone work for knowledge and wisdom they value it more. But also, by speaking metaphorically and symbolically gives greater meaning to the truths he taught. Because he knew that his teachings would have to begin as an oral tradition and written later he needs to make his lessons memorable and lasting. Symbols accomplish these goals. The fact that Jesus constantly speaks using metaphors makes it very plausible that he was doing so in instructing his apostles in the communion ceremony.

2) judeoChristian rituals tend serve 1 of 2 purposes: 1) either the ritual is intended to have spiritual ramifications (baptism) which are necessary to sanctify something or accomplish a spiritual end necessary to the saving of a person's soul 2) the ritual is designed to serve as a reminder of a covenant with the lord, a reminder of a historic event in the church, pass down a tradition that conveys a truth of some sort. Sometimes a ritual is serves both purposes. As I believe is the case with communion. More on that later.

3: look at the context of what was written. First, what throughout the bible does Christ use bread/his body and wine/water symbolizs throughout his ministry.

A) The body of Christ is used to symbolize the church itself. In 1 Cor 12-27 it reads 26If one part suffers, every part suffers with it; if one part is honored, every part rejoices with it. 27Now you are the body of Christ, and each of you is a member of it. There are many more examples of this so I will not expunge on that too much. Eating In the JudeoChristian tradition could symbolize one of 2 things: either destruction of something or taking something external to yourself and making it a part of you. A common theme throughout the New Testament is each Christian becoming a part of the body of Christ and one with the church. The ritual of the communion here is symbolic in that as you take communion you are symbolically proclaiming yourself a Christian. By eating the bread, you are eating the "body of Christ" and taking upon yourself the name of Christ, declaring yourself his follower and committing to be a member of his church, making the body of Christ part of your body, bringing the very essence of the church into yourself, making it an integral part of your life.
1st Cor 10:16-17
The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?17 For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.

Clearly here Paul is equating the bread of communion to the body of Christ, stating very clearly the symbolism here. The bread is the church (body of Christ) and when we as Christians take it, we are declaring that we belong to Christ's church.

2) wine: wine/water is often used to symbolize the gospel and word of God. John 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting life. Water/drink or in the case of communion wine symbolizes the word of God or the New Testament which gives eternal life. In fact Jesus comes close to saying this plainly almost word for word in every discussion of the last supper. Matthew 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. Just my take, you should know that I am not a Catholic or orthodox and while I have done quite abit of studying of various sects as well as on the scriptures themselves I by no means claim to be a bible scholar.

I am pretty firmly in the anti-transubstantiation camp.

1st: Christ speaks metaphorically and symbolically throughout his ministry. He taught in parables and used metaphors constantly. He did this to hide the meaning and greater truths of the gospel rather than spell them out. You know the saying about casting pearls before swine. It's a great way to teach. If you make someone work for knowledge and wisdom they value it more. But also, by speaking metaphorically and symbolically gives greater meaning to the truths he taught. Because he knew that his teachings would have to begin as an oral tradition and written later he needs to make his lessons memorable and lasting. Symbols accomplish these goals. The fact that Jesus constantly speaks using metaphors makes it very plausible that he was doing so in instructing his apostles in the communion ceremony.

2) judeoChristian rituals tend serve 1 of 2 purposes: 1) either the ritual is intended to have spiritual ramifications (baptism) which are necessary to sanctify something or accomplish a spiritual end necessary to the saving of a person's soul 2) the ritual is designed to serve as a reminder of a covenant with the lord, a reminder of a historic event in the church, pass down a tradition that conveys a truth of some sort. Sometimes a ritual is serves both purposes. As I believe is the case with communion. More on that later.

3: look at the context of what was written. First, what throughout the bible does Christ use bread/his body and wine/water symbolizs throughout his ministry.

A) The body of Christ is used to symbolize the church itself. In 1 Cor 12-27 it reads 26If one part suffers, every part suffers with it; if one part is honored, every part rejoices with it. 27Now you are the body of Christ, and each of you is a member of it. There are many more examples of this so I will not expunge on that too much. Eating In the JudeoChristian tradition could symbolize one of 2 things: either destruction of something or taking something external to yourself and making it a part of you. A common theme throughout the New Testament is each Christian becoming a part of the body of Christ and one with the church. The ritual of the communion here is symbolic in that as you take communion you are symbolically proclaiming yourself a Christian. By eating the bread, you are eating the "body of Christ" and taking upon yourself the name of Christ, declaring yourself his follower and committing to be a member of his church, making the body of Christ part of your body, bringing the very essence of the church into yourself, making it an integral part of your life.
1st Cor 10:16-17
The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?17 For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.

Clearly here Paul is equating the bread of communion to the body of Christ, stating very clearly the symbolism here. The bread is the church (body of Christ) and when we as Christians take it, we are declaring that we belong to Christ's church.

2) wine: wine/water is often used to symbolize the gospel and word of God. John 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting life. Water/drink or in the case of communion wine symbolizes the word of God or the New Testament which gives eternal life. In fact Jesus comes close to saying this plainly almost word for word in every discussion of the last supper. Matthew 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. Mark 14:24 And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many. Luke 20:22 Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you.

Why would he even mention the phrase New Testament if there was not greater meaning here. If he literally meant this is my blood there would be no need for the phrase "of the New Testament". Here Jesus is literally saying "this wine is a symbol of my blood, which is the New Testament (word of God) which is shed for you and the remission of sins.

I could go on and on but I am getting tired. Also, the word used for body soma. According to the language of the time if Christ had meant that the apostles were literally eating him during communion the most common phrasage to use would have been sarx or flesh. Since body was used and not flesh (animal flesh was the common phrase used to refer to animal meat for eating) it indicates that there Jesus does jot meant that the apostles are literally eating his body. Nowhere is the word flesh used, which would have cropped up somewhere in one of the gospels if the apostles had ever meant that the bread of communion was literally Jesus' meat we were consuming: the word flesh would have occurred somewhere and it never does. The repeated use of the word body has symbolic meaning because the body of Christ is the symbol used for the church over and over again throughout the New Testament.

Not to mention the fact that during the ritual itself Jesus is present when he is passing around the bread. It would have been obvious to everyone present that Jesus was not being literal. The bread could not have been his literal body if Jesus was there with them. It would have had to have meant more. We see evidence of this in 1 Corinthians 11:25 After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.

The phrase in remembrance of me is important because if the bread and wine were meant to literally BE the flesh and blood of Jesus then the most plain way to say it in a letter of instruction to the church would have been "eat and drink because this IS me" or this is my flesh and blood sacrificed for your sins or something to that effect.

When Jesus speaks plainly and is meant to be taken literally he makes it very plain. When Jesus is using symbolism it is also very plain and the clues are there to elaborate on whether Jesus is speaking symbolically or figuratively. Based on the language used and the context in which this occurs as well as the fact that Jesus is giving the apostles a rememberance ritual, it would have been very clear to those who were well versed in Judeo symbolism that this ritual Jesus was teaching them was symbolic in nature.

Spent too much time on this as it is, but there ya go.
Zobel
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AG
You can say that again.
Zobel
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AG
Christ Jesus uses the word sarx in John 6:51 and 6:53 speaking of His flesh:

Therefore Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you shall have eaten the flesh (sarka) of the Son of Man, and shall have drunk His blood, you do not have life in yourselves."

As for the words of institution, Christ literally did say eat and drink because this is me.
Quote:

And when He had taken some bread and given thanks, He broke it and gave it to them, saying, "This is My body which is given for you; do this in remembrance of Me." And in the same way He took the cup after they had eaten, saying, "This cup which is poured out for you is the new covenant in My blood."
Christ was given to parables with the crowds, but direct explanations to the Twelve. After His death and resurrection, He spent forty days with them teaching them, and the Spirit was likewise promised to bring them into all the truth. Whatever they learned was the truth. Occam's razor -- what's more likely? That within one generation St John's disciples had completely fouled it up? Or that they got it right?

St Ignatius of Antioch was a disciple of St John, the apostle. He wrote this in 108 AD:
Quote:

Some ignorantly deny Him, or rather have been denied by Him...not confessing that He was [truly] possessed of a body...

They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again. Those, therefore, who speak against this gift of God, incur death in the midst of their disputes. But it were better for them to treat it with respect, that they also might rise again.
St Paul's instructions in 1 Corinthians 11 say:
"Whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord."
and
"For he who eats and drinks, eats and drinks judgment to himself if he does not judge the body rightly."

What does that mean? How can you be guilty of judging the body rightly or not rightly if it's a symbol? How do you judge a symbol of spiritual participation in suffering wrongly? How does eating symbolic bread and wine make you guilty of the body and blood of the Lord if it is only a symbol?

You want to talk about ritual symbolism? In the passover, they ate the passover lamb. Do you think St John wasn't well aware of the implication of St John the Baptist's words "Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!" Christ's death and resurrection is our passover - in every language but English and German it is called Pascha, Passover! We eat the Lamb! In our liturgy, the piece of the bread separated and used for the Eucharist is called the Lamb!
GQaggie
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Quote:

If your interpretation is correct (since that's what you want to talk about, probably because literally any other evidence is not in your favor) then let's "analyze" it.
The parenthetical part seems unnecessarily harsh. I think I made it pretty clear in the thread title that my discussion was going to be focused on what John 6 says on this subject. I was trying to look at it in a fair amount of detail, and I lacked the time to cover both it and every other source known to man on the subject as exhaustively as I would like.

I believe my interpretation on this to be consistent with Christ's teaching in the specific context, the surrounding context, and His teaching throughout the Gospels. Admittedly, until very recently, the only evidence I concerned myself with on the matter was the Bible. I don't give the early Christian writings outside of the Bible anywhere close to the same credence you do, but I am willing to discuss it nonetheless. I even stated that I would do so, but needed more time.

Quote:

Why stop your exegesis with v58? Why did He continue to teach -- even more explicit and outrageous claims -- when He knew the people were grumbling (v41)? St Photini didn't find his teaching in Ch 4 difficult; why was this so difficult then, if He was just talking about spiritual food? And then again, He makes it more explicit in after they start to argue in v52. Why did He have to go and then ask His disciples if they would leave Him over this? First the people were grumbling, and now his loyal followers were. He tells them: "the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life" and then many of them left! Now we have reduced it to the Twelve, who stayed with Him. This is not unlike the story of Gideon's 300 men in Judges 7. Tell me what is so difficult about His analogy?
There are multiple reasons they struggled with His teachings in this dialogue. The multitude was comprised mostly of superficial disciples who lacked an understanding of who He was and were merely following Him for what they could gain physically. Knowing this, He told them what they needed to hear. All of the following were offensive to the people.

1. Stop seeking the physical and seek the eternal.
2. He elevated Himself above Moses.
3. He referred to God as His Father.
4. He called Himself the Bread from Heaven.
5. They had to believe in Him and partake of Him to receive eternal life

I do not think that the idea of eating His flesh and drinking His blood was the only thing that confused them and riled them up here. I think it was simply the last straw. That Christ proceeded with the difficult teachings despite their complaining should not be surprising since we see that pattern play out multiple times in the Gospels. He often confused His audience with His teachings, as Ags4DaWin alluded to at least three times.

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Look, there are multiple readings of many scriptural texts that are supportable. Eunomians used lots of scripture to "prove" that Christ was not the same essence as the Father. Arius used lots of scripture to "prove" that there was a time when Christ was not. St St Gregory the Theologian told those who would use dialectic / reason / logic applied to the scriptures to attack the teaching of the Church: "Let faith lead us rather than reason" and "faith is that which completes our argument". At the end of the day the tightness of the argument does not matter - what matters is whether the point being put forward represents the truth. This is the key problem with the modern approach to scriptural exegesis; without a lens to read scripture to, we are left using mere intellectual belief to ratify matters of faith.
My questions for you would be these: How do I reach the same conclusion as you? How do I know that conclusion is truth?

You posit I cannot understand the scriptures without the church fathers. How do I know if I can understand the church fathers then? And if I can understand them, by what standard do I judge them? By the scriptures? Perhaps I need the bishops of the Orthodox church, but how do I know I can understand them. By what standard do I judge them? By the scriptures? By the church fathers?

I have started working on a post dealing with some of the quotes on the subject from early Christians but probably won't finish it until tomorrow afternoon.

Zobel
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Perhaps, and I didn't really intend it to be harsh. What you're asking folks to do is to debate a bit on a single piece of evidence which in and of itself is indeterminate. Then you exclude other evidence.

I think you're misconstruing the "weight" of the fathers. It's not weighted as scripture, its an interpretive lens by which we check our understanding.

You can presume that they were mad about all five of the reasons, and you're probably right, but they left over His teaching about flesh -- because it appeared to them to contradict the Law.

And no, I don't posit that you can't understand the scriptures. And it isn't about the fathers. I say you can't develop your own interpretations independent of the church based on this piece of information to the exclusion of all others. The Church has a consistent interpretation and application of this scripture.

Put another way -- you would not accept an alternate interpretation of the Trinity, or of Baptism, no matter how tight the scriptural argument seemed to be. Why? Because you have been taught differently, and the very idea of changing those things is antithetical to the lens by which you interpret the rest of your faith.

I'm not saying to submit yourself to this teaching or that, to this doctrine, to this father -- but to the consensus, to the whole. It's the Faith we submit to, it is Christ.

You didn't answer my question about whether your study gave you a new interpretation or confirmed your preheld one. It's important because we interpret scripture, we don't read it. None of us are arguing over the words that are there or particular translations. And these interpretations are subject to our presuppositions, our interpretive lens if you will. You will always read what your lens tells you. Your lens is based on the Bible as you note. But it also includes the hymns you were taught, church sermons you've heard, bible studies, books. You aren't solo scriptura, it's just not possible to do.

My lens is based on the Bible too, yes -- but also on literally thousands and thousands of hymns, songs, letters, epistles, devotionals, liturgies, etc going right back to the beginning with astonishing consistency.

What mind do Christians have? Collectively? The mind of Christ. So how can this mind err? How can this mind make mistakes on such a grand scale for centuries? And, more positively, without this, how can so many people with so many varied backgrounds and different personal lenses all over the world have the same lens for this matter?
Sq16Aggie2006
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People getting too far bogged down into the actual workings of transsubstantiation miss the forrest for the trees, much like transsubstantiation itself.

Transsubstantiation is pretty much a thought exercise using aristotelian metaphysics that tries to convey how bread and wine can maintain their appearance and form while being the body and blood of Christ. It's an extreme rationalization of an idea which is really best summed up by the Eastern Divine Mystery definition: the eucharist is the body and blood of Christ because Christ said it was, and meant it was, and this understanding was unanimously held by the Church.

One of the most unnerving trends of Protestantism is the constant need for Christian revisionism for revisionism's sake. The verbiage in John 6 could not be more explicit, aside from Christ's actual instruction, early on he uses the verb "****o" meaning "to eat" to get his point across. In verse 54 he changes to "trogo" after the Disciples start expressing unease at the teaching. "Trogo" is a much more descriptive and intense verb for eating, meaning to rip flesh with your teeth, to gnaw, to consume. He's doubling down on his commandment to literally bite and chew his flesh; this after his disciples are already showing consternation.

Protestants take the Bible, given to them by the Holy Spirit through the engine of Christ's appointed Church on earth, and use it to dowse heretical doctrines from the scripture, outside of the authority of the very same engine.

K-2 said it perfectly, I dont understand the hubris of those who figure after 1600 years of Christianity wallowing in darkness, Protestants divined some insights that completely went counter to the unanimous teaching of the Church, and used the same scriptures given to them by the Church to do so.
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Sq16Aggie2006
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JJMt said:

Well, apparently Clement of Alexandria, Origen, Tertullian of Carthage, Iraneus, Justin Martyr and even the great Augustine himself believed Christ's words to be merely figurative.

So not all the church fathers, to the very earliest, believed that Christ's words were literal.


That's incorrect. Don't believe what you read in random wordpress documents. There's a difference in arguing that you're not feasting on pieces of Christ's lopped off body and the actual real presence. If I was a lazy man I would just link you to a site with their statements.

But as such, will wait until I am off my cell-phone and will formulate a post correctly, but perhaps K-2 will help in the interim.

EDIT for your Edit: How much heresy should be tolerated? How much reform balances out heresy? Luther was a nut. Modern Lutherans shun their very namesake. Had he recanted the heresies he would not have been excommunicated, he refused to do so. Had he recanted AFTER excommunication it would have been lifted.
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Sq16Aggie2006
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I will certainly provide context, you'll see most of their statements that hint to any figurative presence are due to a movement which likened the eucharist to gnawing on Christ's severed finger, they're assuring that while the Eucharist is Christ's true body and blood; they arent Hannibal Lecter while communing.

I have no problem accepting Protestant and Eastern claims of Hubris, I heartily agree the Roman Catholic Church in its 2000 year history and power has been home to some of the most arrogant clergy throughout all of history. Their combined arrogance however absolutely pales in comparison to the actions of a disgruntled german monk who somehow derived the authority to create his own churcb outside of the apostolic authority that had been ordained by Christ himself, and start inventing new truths.

The Orthodox did no such thing while managing to separate themselves legally from the RC, which is why I still consider (with K-2 disagreeing) that we are still one for all intents and purposes.
jkag89
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Quote:

If you do provide their statements, please provide the complete context also.
Would have been nice if you would have done the same by actually providing where Clement of Alexandria, Origen, Tertullian of Carthage, Iraneus, Justin Martyr and Augustine believed Christ's words to be merely figurative.
Zobel
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JJMt said:

Well, apparently Clement of Alexandria, Origen, Tertullian of Carthage, Iraneus, Justin Martyr and even the great Augustine himself believed Christ's words to be merely figurative.

So not all the church fathers, to the very earliest, believed that Christ's words were literal, nor was the teaching of the church unanimous. Is that hubris, or rather an humble search for God's truth?

You RCC folks keep forgetting that it wasn't Luther who left the RCC, but rather the RCC that excommunicated him (and then proceeded to adopt as reforms most of the items for which Luther was excommunicated).
I am completely up for this challenge.

Find me quotes, and I'll find you a MOUNTAIN of quotes otherwise. Every single person on that list believed in the real presence.

St Clement
"The Blood of the Lord, indeed, is twofold. There is His corporeal Blood, by which we are redeemed from corruption; and His spiritual Blood, that with which we are anointed. That is to say, to drink the Blood of Jesus is to share in His immortality. The strength of the Word is the Spirit just as the blood is the strength of the body. Similarly, as wine is blended with water, so is the Spirit with man. The one, the Watered Wine, nourishes in faith, while the other, the Spirit, leads us on to immortality. The union of both, however, - of the drink and of the Word, - is called the Eucharist, a praiseworthy and excellent gift. Those who partake of it in faith are sanctified in body and in soul. By the will of the Father, the divine mixture, man, is mystically united to the Spirit and to the Word."
(The Instructor of the Children or Paedagogus)

"The Word is everything to a child: both Father and Mother, both Instructor and Nurse. 'Eat My Flesh,' He says, 'and drink My Blood.' The Lord supplies us with these intimate nutrients. He delivers over His Flesh, and pours out His Blood; and nothing is lacking for the growth of His children. O incredible mystery!"

(The Instructor of the Children or Paedagogus)

Origen:
But we give thanks to the Creator of all, and, along with thanksgiving and prayer for the blessings we have received, we also eat the bread presented to us; and this bread becomes by prayer a sacred body, which sanctifies those who sincerely partake of it.
(Contra Celsius)

I quoted Tertullian above.

St Ireaneus
[Christ] has declared the cup, a part of creation, to be his own Blood, from which he causes our blood to flow; and the bread, a part of creation, he has established as his own Body, from which he gives increase to our bodies."
(Against Heresies)

So then, if the mixed cup and the manufactured bread receive the Word of God and become the Eucharist, that is to say, the Blood and Body of Christ, which fortify and build up the substance of our flesh, how can these people claim that the flesh is incapable of receiving God's gift of eternal life, when it is nourished by Christ's Blood and Body and is His member? As the blessed apostle says in his letter to the Ephesians, 'For we are members of His Body, of His flesh and of His bones' (Eph. 5:30). He is not talking about some kind of 'spiritual' and 'invisible' man, 'for a spirit does not have flesh an bones' (Lk. 24:39). No, he is talking of the organism possessed by a real human being, composed of flesh and nerves and bones. It is this which is nourished by the cup which is His Blood, and is fortified by the bread which is His Body. The stem of the vine takes root in the earth and eventually bears fruit, and 'the grain of wheat falls into the earth' (Jn. 12:24), dissolves, rises again, multiplied by the all-containing Spirit of God, and finally after skilled processing, is put to human use. These two then receive the Word of God and become the Eucharist, which is the Body and Blood of Christ."
(Five Books on the Unmasking and Refutation of the Falsely named Gnosis)

St Justin Martyr
"This food we call the Eucharist, of which no one is allowed to partake except one who believes that the things we teach are true, and has received the washing for forgiveness of sins and for rebirth, and who lives as Christ handed down to us. For we do not receive these things as common bread or common drink; but as Jesus Christ our Savior being incarnate by God's Word took flesh and blood for our salvation, so also we have been taught that the food consecrated by the Word of prayer which comes from him, from which our flesh and blood are nourished by transformation, is the flesh and blood of that incarnate Jesus."
(First Apology)

St Augustine
"You ought to know what you have received, what you are going to receive, and what you ought to receive daily. That Bread which you see on the altar, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the Body of Christ. The chalice, or rather, what is in that chalice, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the Blood of Christ."
(Sermons, 227.21)

"The fact that our fathers of old offered sacrifices with beasts for victims, which the present-day people of God read about but do not do, is to be understood in no way but this: that those things signified the things that we do in order to draw near to God and to recommend to our neighbor the same purpose. A visible sacrifice, therefore, is the sacrament, that is to say, the sacred sign, of an invisible sacrifice . Christ is both the Priest, offering Himself, and Himself the Victim. He willed that the sacramental sign of this should be the daily sacrifice of the Church, who, since the Church is His body and He the Head, learns to offer herself through Him."
(City of God)

"For the whole Church observes this practice which was handed down by the Fathers: that it prayers for those who have died in the communion of the Body and Blood of Christ, when they are commemorated in their own place in the sacrifice itself; and the sacrifice is offered also in memory of them on their behalf.
(Sermons 172.2)



Sq16Aggie2006
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JJMt said:

Quote:

Their combined arrogance however absolutely pales in comparison to the actions of a disgruntled german monk who somehow derived the authority to create his own churcb outside of the apostolic authority that had been ordained by Christ himself, and start inventing new truths.
You are rewriting history. That disgruntled German monk only created his own church after being excommunicated by the RCC for trying to reform it from within, reforms that you and every other RCC now agree were appropriate and necessary.


Excommunication is a time-out, not an eternal severing. Again, how great do reforms need to be to balance out heresy? The man went outside the Church ordained by Christ himself to create his own church, that isnt hubris?
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jkag89
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Did Tertullian and St. Augustine Deny the Real Presence?
by Tim Staples
GQaggie
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Well, I see a lenghty discussion of quotes has already started, but I worked on this for quite awhile, so I'm going to go ahead and post it, even it rehashes something that has already been discussed.

Tertullian


Quote:

They thought His discourse was harsh and intolerable, supposing that He had really and literally enjoined on them to eat his flesh, He, with the view of ordering the state of salvation as a spiritual thing, set out with the principle, It is the spirit that quickens; and then added, The flesh profits nothing meaning, of course, to the giving of life. He also goes on to explain what He would have us to understand by spirit: The words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. In a like sense He had previously said: He that hears my words, and believes in Him that sent me, has everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation, but shall pass from death unto life. Constituting, therefore, His word as the life-giving principle, because that word is spirit and life, He likewise called His flesh by the same appellation; because, too, the Word had become flesh, We ought therefore to desire Him in order that we may have life, and to devour Him with the ear, and to ruminate on Him with the understanding, and to digest Him by faith. (On the Resurrection of the Flesh 37)
Here is the quote I provided from Tertullian. Note he describes that they found Christ's teaching intolerable because they supposed He literally asked them to eat His flesh. If that were what Tertullian himself believed, this would be a very odd way to phrase that sentence. I would expect something more like, "They thought it intolerable that He really and literally enjoined on them to eat His flesh." But we don't have to guess what Tertullian thought He meant, because he goes on to show that Christ was making a spiritual point using a physical illustration.

Quote:

Then, having taken the bread and given it to His disciples, He made it His own body, by saying, "This is my body," that is, the figure of my body. A figure, however, there could not have been, unless there were first a veritable body. An empty thing, or phantom, is incapable of a figure. If, however, (as Marcion might say,) He pretended the bread was His body, because He lacked the truth of bodily substance, it follows that He must have given bread for us.
This is the first quote you provided from Tertullian, and I believe it makes my point far better than I ever could. He very clearly states that when Christ says "This is my body" He meant it was a figure of His body. He states that only things that really do exist can have a figure or representation of themselves. Therefore, Christ must have really possessed a physical body. Christ did not pretend the bread was His actual body, He used it as a symbol or figure of that which was real.


Quote:

Similarly, too, touching the days of Stations [i.e., fasts], most think that they must not be present at the sacrificial prayers, on the ground that the Station must be dissolved by reception of the Lord's Body. Does, then, the Eucharist cancel a service devoted to God, or bind it more to God? Will not your Station be more solemn if you have withal stood at God's altar? When the Lord's Body has been received and reserved each point is secured, both the participation of the sacrifice and the discharge of duty.
This is your second quote. I fail to see how this quote differentiates between a real or symbolic presence. Certainly, in either case we would expect the early Christians to talk of Christ's body and blood since that is the language Christ Himself used.

Quote:

The ring also he is then wont to receive for the first time, wherewith, after being interrogated, he publicly seals the agreement of faith, and thus thenceforward feeds upon the fatness of the Lord's bodythe Eucharist, to wit.
Again I have no issue with calling the bread the Lord's body as Christ does Himself. There is nothing here, unless it is in the context which you did not include that constrains it to a literal or figurative sense.


Clement

Quote:


"But we are God-taught, and glory in the name of Christ. How then are we not to regard the apostle as attaching this sense to the milk of the babes? And if we who preside over the Churches are shepherds after the image of the good Shepherd, and you the sheep, are we not to regard the Lord as preserving consistency in the use of figurative speech, when He speaks also of the milk of the flock? Elsewhere the Lord, in the Gospel according to John, brought this out by symbols, when He said: "Eat ye my flesh, and drink my blood; " describing distinctly by metaphor the drinkable properties of faith and the promise, by means of which the Church, like a human being consisting of many members, is refreshed and grows, is welded together and compacted of both,of faith, which is the body, and of hope, which is the soul; as also the Lord of flesh and blood. For in reality the blood of faith is hope, in which faith is held as by a vital principle." (ibid)
Here Clement is very clearly saying that Christ was speaking symbolically using metaphors when speaking of eating His flesh and drinking His blood.

Quote:

"For the blood of the grapethat is, the Worddesired to be mixed with water, as His blood is mingled with salvation. And the blood of the Lord is twofold. For there is the blood of His flesh, by which we are redeemed from corruption; and the spiritual, that by which we are anointed. And to drink the blood of Jesus, is to become partaker of the Lord's immortality; the Spirit being the energetic principle of the Word, as blood is of flesh. Accordingly, as wine is blended with water, so is the Spirit with man. And the one, the mixture of wine and water, nourishes to faith; while the other, the Spirit, conducts to immortality. And the mixture of bothof the water and of the Wordis called eucharist, renowned and glorious grace; and they who by faith partake of it are sanctified both in body and soul. For the divine mixture, man, the Father's will has mystically compounded by the Spirit and the Word. For, in truth, the spirit is joined to the soul, which is inspired by it; and the flesh, by reason of which the Word became flesh, to the Word." (Paedagogus 2:2)
Here he is again speaking figuratively on the topic.

Quote:

"'I,' says the Lord, 'have meat to eat that ye know not of. My meat is to do the will of Him that sent Me.' You see another kind of food which, similarly with milk, represents figuratively the will of God. Besides, also, the completion of His own passion He called catachrestically "a cup," when He alone had to drink and drain it. Thus to Christ the fulfilling of His Father's will was food; and to us infants, who drink the milk of the word of the heavens, Christ Himself is food. Hence seeking is called sucking; for to those babes that seek the Word, the Father's breasts of love supply milk." (ibid)
In this quote Clement references John 4, which we discussed earlier. It shows Christ again using food to make a spiritual point. He then references Christ's prayer in the garden prior to his crucifixion. Christ uses the term "cup," the same term he would use when instituting the Lord's Supper in a figurative sense.

Quote:

"Thus in many ways the Word is figuratively described, as meat, and flesh, and food, and bread, and blood, and milk. The Lord is all these, to give enjoyment to us who have believed on Him. Let no one then think it strange, when we say that the Lord's blood is figuratively represented as milk. For is it not figuratively represented as wine? "Who washes," it is said, "His garment in wine, His robe in the blood of the grape." In His Own Spirit He says He will deck the body of the Word; as certainly by His own Spirit He will nourish those who hunger for the Word." (ibid)
Here Clement states Christ's blood is figuratively represented by wine.

Of course, I again found several quotes from him referencing Christ's body and blood, but this is again unsurprising as Christ used that language Himself. It necessitates neither a literal or figurative understanding. I find it interesting that when you do find them providing specific commentary on the literal vs the figurative, that the quotes by Clement come down on the side of the figurative.


Origen

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"Now, if 'everything that entereth into the mouth goes into the belly and is cast out into the drought,' even the meat which has been sanctified through the word of God and prayer, in accordance with the fact that it is material, goes into the belly and is cast out into the draught, but in respect of the prayer which comes upon it, according to the proportion of the faith, becomes a benefit and is a means of clear vision to the mind which looks to that which is beneficial, and it is not the material of the bread but the word which is said over it which is of advantage to him who eats it not unworthily of the Lord. And these things indeed are said of the typical and symbolical body. But many things might be said about the Word Himself who became flesh, and true meat of which he that eateth shall assuredly live for ever, no worthless person being able to eat it; for if it were possible for one who continues worthless to eat of Him who became flesh. who was the Word and the living bread, it would not have been written, that 'every one who eats of this bread shall live for ever.'"
You asked earlier how one can be guilty of the body and blood when they eat unworthily. Origen says it has nothing to do with the material of the bread but what is said over it and what it symbolically represents.


Irenaeus

Quote:

"Then, again, how can they [the Gnostics] say that the flesh, which is nourished with the body of the Lord and with His blood, goes to corruption, and does not partake of life? Let them, therefore, either alter their opinion, or cease from offering the things just mentioned. But our opinion is in accordance with the eucharist, and the eucharist in turn establishes our opinion. For we offer to Him His own, announcing consistently the fellowship and union of the flesh and Spirit. For as the bread, which is produced from the earth, when it receives the invocation of God, is no longer common bread, but the eucharist, consisting of two realities, earthly and heavenly; so also our bodies, when they receive the eucharist, are no longer corruptible, having the hope of the resurrection to eternity."
This quote from Irenaeus seems to be used in support of the Real Presence, but, again, the context of the argument makes that an unnecessary assumption. He is arguing against the Gnostic idea that the flesh cannot partake in the spiritual. He shows how physical bread, after the blessing, has both physical and spiritual characteristics. It has gone from plain physical bread, which can only nourish the physical body to something that conveys a spiritual blessing when consumed. It now carries both an earthly (i.e. physical bread) and a spiritual (i.e. conveys spiritual incorruption) component. Even if you take the spiritual here to mean Christ's flesh, which is highly questionable, you are left with the doctrine of consubstantiation. It is both actual bread and actual flesh. Perhaps this is fine with the Orthodox, but I know it is not with Catholics.

Quote:

"For when the Greeks, having arrested the slaves of Christian catechumens, then used force against them, in order to learn from them some secret thing [practiced] among Christians, these slaves, having nothing to say that would meet the wishes of their tormentors, except that they had heard from their masters that the divine communion was the body and blood of Christ, and imagining that it was actually flesh and blood, gave their inquisitors answer to that effect. Then these latter, assuming such to be the case with regard to the practices of Christians, gave information regarding it to other Greeks, and sought to compel the martyrs Sanctus and Blandina to confess, under the influence of torture, [that the allegation was correct]. To these men Blandina replied very admirably in these words: 'How should those persons endure such [accusations], who, for the sake of the practice [of piety], did not avail themselves even of the flesh that was permitted [them to eat]?'" (Fragment 13)
You asked why they were accused of cannibalism. According to Irenaeus, it was because outsiders hearing their discussions imagined it was actual flesh and blood. Notice he didn't say "understood correctly" it was actual flesh and blood. Much like when Tertullian said the people supposed He literally asked them to eat His flesh, this is odd language if what they understood was actually correct. Irenaeus goes onto say that Blandina asked how could they be accused of eating human flesh when they wouldn't even eat flesh that was permitted them. This is not the response of someone who believes they are eating the actual flesh of Christ.

Even your quote from Cyril is ambiguous. Here it is again:

Quote:

1. Even of itself the teaching of the Blessed Paul is sufficient to give you a full assurance concerning those Divine Mysteries, of which having been deemed worthy, you have become of the same body and blood with Christ. For you have just heard him say distinctly, That our Lord Jesus Christ in the night in which He was betrayed, took bread, and when He had given thanks He broke it, and gave to His disciples, saying, Take, eat, this is My Body: and having taken the cup and given thanks, He said, Take, drink, this is My Blood. Since then He Himself declared and said of the Bread, This is My Body, who shall dare to doubt any longer? And since He has Himself affirmed and said, This is My Blood, who shall ever hesitate, saying, that it is not His blood?

2. He once in Cana of Galilee, turned the water into wine, akin to blood , and is it incredible that He should have turned wine into blood? When called to a bodily marriage, He miraculously wrought that wonderful work; and on the children of the bride-chamber Matthew 9:15, shall He not much rather be acknowledged to have bestowed the fruition of His Body and Blood ?

3. Wherefore with full assurance let us partake as of the Body and Blood of Christ: for in the figure of Bread is given to you His Body, and in the figure of Wine His Blood; that you by partaking of the Body and Blood of Christ, may be made of the same body and the same blood with Him. For thus we come to bear Christ in us, because His Body and Blood are distributed through our members; thus it is that, according to the blessed Peter, we become partakers of the divine nature 2 Peter 1:4 .

4. Christ on a certain occasion discoursing with the Jews said, Except you eat My flesh and drink My blood, you have no life in you. John 6:53 They not having heard His saying in a spiritual sense were offended, and went back, supposing that He was inviting them to eat flesh.
1. Again, I, nor any Christians I know of have a problem saying the bread and wine are the body and blood of Christ. The question this entire time has been are they metaphorically so, or literally so.

2. Here he certainly seems to be indicating a literal change from wine to blood. I think it is interesting that he chose to compare this to changing water to wine though. In that change, the liquid no longer appeared to be water, and it did not taste like water. These two changes are really not very similar.

3. He reverts back to talk of figures here, which seems to contradict what he said in point 2. Has it been literally changed like the water to wine, or is it still wine acting only as a figure of His blood? He then ties in 2 Peter 1:4, which makes no sense. Peter provides his own explanation in those verses. Peter does not say that we become partakers of the Divine nature through the eating and drinking of the Eucharist. He states it is through the exceeding great and precious promises. He states we have been given all things that pertain to life and godliness and that through these things we have been transformed from corrupt creatures into incorrupt beings capable of partaking the in the Divine nature. This is after all, the whole point of Christianity, to transform us from vile, sinful, lost, and helpless creatures into sons of God, reflecting the Light of the one begotten Son.

4. Here again is language that makes no sense if you believe you really are eating flesh. Why would he say supposing? Furthermore, he states they supposed this because they failed to understand it in a spiritual sense. This sounds like someone saying it isn't physical flesh.


It certainly seems like a bit of a stretch to say that there was clear and unanimous teaching from the early Christians. One article I found detailed four different schools of thought with early Christians: the mystical view, the symbolic view, the allegorical or spiritual view, and the literal view.
Zobel
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In all cases you're creating a dichotomy where one doesn't exist. You can't refute their belief in the Holy Mystery, so you suggest that their use of symbolic language precludes the Mystery itself.
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Zobel
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People who dive into philosophy by picking and choosing from quotes on google search websites should take some care. There is a massive difference between cherry picking a quote out of context and reading all of what they wrote.

Tertullian
So, question -- then what did Tertullian disagree with Marcion? Marcion said it was just bread, that he must have given bread for us. Tertullian is teaching that he didn't give bread for us.

Second quote -- Tertullian saying that someone received the Lord's Body means that he didn't believe it was the Lord's Body? You are bending the text to your own presupposition. I have never heard a Baptist call it the Body and Blood of God. They call it the Lord's supper, even eschewing the phrase the Eucharist because they reject the "Roman Catholic" interpretation.

St Clement
Same false dichotomy. That the Eucharist is a symbol is not in dispute. But St Clement's long discourse about meat, milk, blood, etc. you've completely butchered, and quoted out of order. Go read the whole thing here. He says of the Eucharist "Such is the suitable food which the Lord ministers, and He offers His flesh and pours forth His blood, and nothing is wanting for the children's growth. O amazing mystery! We are enjoined to cast off the old and carnal corruption, as also the old nutriment, receiving in exchange another new regimen, that of Christ, receiving Him if we can, to hide Him within; and that, enshrining the Saviour in our souls, we may correct the affections of our flesh." There is a union of physical and spiritual here. What is the amazing mystery of bread and wine that's just a remembrance? Only symbolic?

Later he says "since flesh is moistened with blood, and blood is figuratively termed wine, we are bidden to know that, as bread, crumbled into a mixture of wine and water, seizes on the wine and leaves the watery portion, so also the flesh of Christ, the bread of heaven absorbs the blood; that is, those among men who are heavenly, nourishing them up to immortality, and leaving only to destruction the lusts of the flesh."

You talk about him speaking in figurative terms, but you've completely skipped the point of the quote in 2:2, namely that by a mystery of the Father's will has mystically compounded the spiritual and the physical. He even said it right there. That is as explicit as you can get.

Origen
Again, I don't think you're understanding the use of type and symbol here. Those words are probably tupos and symbolum. Tupos is like a model, an image, a pattern a figure; and symbolum means that which implies the other. The type symbol of the bread implies anti-type of the spiritual reality of the mystery. And I would agree also that it's not the bread that we eat unworthily, but the Body. Does that make sense?

I think you're arguing agains the medieval doctrine of transubstatiation, rather than the doctrine of the Eucharist as taught by the Church for millennia.

St Cyril of Jerusalem said "Trust not the judgment to your bodily palate no, but to faith unfaltering; for they who taste are bidden to taste, not bread and wine, but the anti-typical Body and Blood of Christ." That is the same word concept as Origen is expressing.

St. Irenaues
Yeah, you're arguing about a belief I do not hold. St Irenaeus' explanation there is spot on Orthodox. It is the body and blood of God; it is bread and wine. I've taken communion plenty of times, including this morning. It tasted like bread and wine, because that's what it is. But that's not all that it is.

St Cyril
"For thus we come to bear Christ in us, because His Body and Blood are distributed through our members; thus it is that, according to the blessed Peter, we become partakers of the divine nature."

How can a symbol be distributed through our members? Is a symbol the divine nature?

Your exposition of point 3 is simply your own. The Church has always understood as partaking of the divine nature as a receipt of grace. To partake of the divine is literally what a mystery (latin - sacrament) is. So, yeah -- You're completely right. By partaking of the promises, that is, the mysteries of the faith, we are transformed from corrupt creatures to the divine. Not capable of partaking, but partaking THROUGH the promises. We partake of the divine nature through the mysteries. I'm glad you noted that, because it is a huge disconnect between the traditional Apostolic faith and modern protestantism.

For point 4, it's not flesh. It's bread. But it is the body and blood of Christ.

Anyway, St Cyril also taught about the words of institution spoken over the Eucharist as a spiritual sacrifice and a bloodless service:

Quote:

Then having sanctified ourselves by these spiritual Hymns, we beseech the merciful God to send forth His Holy Spirit upon the gifts lying before Him; that He may make the Bread the Body of Christ, and the Wine the Blood of Christ ; for whatsoever the Holy Ghost has touched, is surely sanctified and changed.
To argue that St Cyril did not believe in the Eucharist as truly changed is to just simply make him a liar in his own writing.
7thGenTexan
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Quote:

Transsubstantiation is pretty much a thought exercise using aristotelian metaphysics that tries to convey how bread and wine can maintain their appearance and form while being the body and blood of Christ. It's an extreme rationalization of an idea which is really best summed up by the Eastern Divine Mystery definition: the eucharist is the body and blood of Christ because Christ said it was, and meant it was, and this understanding was unanimously held by the Church.



In other words, transsubstantiation is a meaningless doctrine that can't be defended. It just is because your church wants it to be.
Sq16Aggie2006
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7thGenTexan said:

Quote:

Transsubstantiation is pretty much a thought exercise using aristotelian metaphysics that tries to convey how bread and wine can maintain their appearance and form while being the body and blood of Christ. It's an extreme rationalization of an idea which is really best summed up by the Eastern Divine Mystery definition: the eucharist is the body and blood of Christ because Christ said it was, and meant it was, and this understanding was unanimously held by the Church.



In other words, transsubstantiation is a meaningless doctrine that can't be defended. It just is because your church wants it to be.


Believe it or not, "jesus said so" holds a lot of weight in Orthodox Christianity.
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Zobel
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Bustup I wish I was more lighthearted in my writing style, that cracked me up.

I posted this a few weeks back, but this is a great place to post it again.

Since the "T" word was used, here is a list of terms used by church fathers and writers throughout the history of the Church to describe the change that takes place during the Mystery:

  • an anointing (chrisis Theodore of Mopsuestia, Catechetical Homily 16.12, ST 145, 553);
  • a becoming (genesis Serapion of Thmuis, "Prayer of the Offering," The Sacramentary of Serapion [Thessaloniki: 1967], 125);
  • a blessing (eulogia Divine Liturgy of Saint Basil the Great: "And bless [these Gifts] and sanctify them and show them to be);
  • a bringing into sight (hyp' opsin agoge Dionysios the Areopagite, De Ecclesiastica Hierarchia 3.3.2-13, PG 3, 444A-444C);
  • a completion (teleiosis Germanos of Constantinople, Historia Ecclesiastica, et Mystica Contemplatio PG 98, 437A);
  • a consecration (hierourga Gregory of Nyssa, In Baptismum Christi, PG 46, 581C);
  • a conversion (conversio Ambrose of Milan, De Sacramentis 4.5.23, SC 25, 114);
  • a divinization (theourgia Theodore the Studite, Epistolarum 2.203, PG 99, 1617C);
  • a descending upon/dwelling in (epidemia Serapion of Thmuis, "Prayer of the Offering," The Sacramentary of Serapion, 125);
  • an immixture (emmixis Eutychios of Constantinople, Sermo de Paschate et de Eucharistia 2, PG 86-2, 2393C);
  • a making (poiesis Cyril of Jerusalem, Mystagogiae 5.7, SC 126, 154);
  • a making-divine (theopoiesis Symeon the New Theologion, Ethical Discourses 3, SC 122, 428);
  • a manifestation (apophansis Irenaius of Lyons, Fragmenta 38, PG 7, 1253B);
  • a mutation (mutatio Ambrose of Milan, De Mysteriis 9.52 SC 25bis, 186);
  • a sanctification (hagiasmos Mark of Ephesus, De Corpore et Sanguine Christi, PG 160, 1080A);
  • a sending upon (katapempsis Divine Liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom);
  • a showing forth (anadeixis Basil the Great, De Spiritu Sancto 27.66, SC 17bis, 480);
  • a transelementation (metastoicheiosis Gregory of Nyssa, Oratio Catechetica 37, PG 45, 97B);
  • a transformation (metaskeue John of Damascus, Vita Barlaam et Joasaph, PG 96, 1032A);
  • a transmutation (metabole Divine Liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom; Theodoret of Cyr, Eranistes 1, PG 83, 56B);
  • a transorientation (metarrythmisis John Chrysostom, De Proditione Iudae 1.6, PG 49, 380);
  • a transubstantiation (metousiosis Gennadios Scholarios, De Sacramentali Corpore Christi 1, PG 160, 360C);
  • a transversion (metapoiesis Cyril of Alexandria, In Mattheum 26.27, PG 72, 452C);
  • a uniting (syzeuxis Samonas of Gaza, De Sacramento Altaris, PG 120, 829B);
  • a visitation (epiphoitesis John Chrysostom, On John 45.2, PG 59, 253).
Zobel
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It's a mystery. I'm serious. Some things (like baptism, communion, and so on) are just mysteries of our Faith.

I don't argue that they literally change into blood and wine. I argue that they are really the body and blood of Jesus Christ, in an ontological way. But I feel no need to ascribe a physical reality to a metaphysical change; I also do not feel a need to suggest that a metaphysical change is somehow inferior or less real than a physical change.

They really change. There is a real difference before and after the mystery. What that change is, at some point, become unpious speculation.
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7thGenTexan
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Sq16Aggie2006 said:

7thGenTexan said:

Quote:

Transsubstantiation is pretty much a thought exercise using aristotelian metaphysics that tries to convey how bread and wine can maintain their appearance and form while being the body and blood of Christ. It's an extreme rationalization of an idea which is really best summed up by the Eastern Divine Mystery definition: the eucharist is the body and blood of Christ because Christ said it was, and meant it was, and this understanding was unanimously held by the Church.



In other words, transsubstantiation is a meaningless doctrine that can't be defended. It just is because your church wants it to be.


Believe it or not, "jesus said so" holds a lot of weight in Orthodox Christianity.
People who already agree with transubstantiation will think that's a good argument. Nobody else will.
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jkag89
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Jesus also clearly took the first 11 chapters of Genesis literally,
Make this case please.
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