If one assumes for the purpose of discussion that Peter was the greatest of the apostles, what possible difference does that make regarding the rank or respect of the persons that followed Peter?
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There's just "room" enough to reason from conversations in the bible that Jesus gave him a leadership position amongst them.
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i wonder about that. cause Jesus never told Paul that he should contact peter or answer to peter for any of the work paul was going to do.
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Granting the assumption stated at the top of the thread, there still is no reason to assume that the annointing upon Peter was intended as a positional annointing that would flow with the office as opposed to residing in the man.
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Even assuming the annointing was positional as opposed to personal, there is no reason to assume the annointing remained when the office changed, beginning with Constantine and continuing through the Dark Ages, through the Reformation and to this day.
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Even assuming that the annointing was positional and intended as enduring despite changes in the office, there is no reason to assume that the annointing remained when unrepetent sinners assumed the position.
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73, seeing as how the earliest reference to Peter in Rome oocurred hundreds of years after the event,
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Why did Rome inherit the "prestige" of supremacy carried by the Petrine succession and not Antioch? Peter founded the Church in Antioch, consecrating its bishop when he left for Rome. Antioch predates Rome as a significant Christian city...according to the Acts it is the first place that the followers of Christ were called Christians. Could it be that the influence of Rome was not only due to its Petrine succession, but also its status as the seat of the Empire?
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On its face no, but all of the early church agreed that it was so. That counts for something. For Peter and the others.
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All of the early church did not agree that the Roman Catholic church was the universal church!
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For Peter and the others.
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If Roman Catholics really believe that the Roman Catholic church is the one and only "universal" church why did Pope John Paul II make the statement that Muslims, Jews and Christians worship the same God? How can that be?
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There was NO "Roman Catholic Church" till the 9th century at the earliest.
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We Christians joyfully recognize the religious values we have in common with Islam. Today I would like to repeat what I said to young Muslims some years ago in Casablanca: "We believe in the same God, the one God, the living God, the God who created the world and brings his creatures to their perfection" (Insegnamenti, VIII/2, [1985], p. 497).
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That's my whole point. Just what does the term "universal" church mean?
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There are several ideas on that subject, but to say that the Roman Catholic church of today is the "universal" church defies logic not to mention Scripture!
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Titan, how can there be two "universal" churches?