What Language Did Jesus Speak?

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Bracy
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Excerpt from: Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus – New Insights From a Hebraic Perspective by David Biven and Roy Blizzard, Jr. (Destiny Image Publishers, Inc., Shippensburg, PA)


Introduction

It is indeed unfortunate that of all the New Testament writings, the words and sayings of Jesus himself are the most difficult to understand. Most Christians are unconsciously devoting the majority of their time in Bible study to the Epistles – almost completely ignoring the historical and Hebraic Synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark, and Luke). Without really understanding why, they tend to just “read over” the Synoptic Gospels. Phrases such as “Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven” (Matthew 5:3)[1] sound so beautiful and poetic, but for the English speaker, do they convey any real depth of meaning?

Why are the words of Jesus that we find in the Synoptic Gospels so difficult to understand? The answer is that the original gospel that formed the basis for the Synoptic Gospels was first communicated, not in Greek, but in the Hebrew language. This means that we are reading English translations of a text which is itself a translation. Since the Synoptic Gospels are derived from an original Hebrew text, we are constantly “bumping into” Hebrew expressions or idioms which are often meaningless in Greek or in translations from the Greek.

The more Hebraic the saying or teaching of Jesus, the more difficult it is for us to understand. But it is just these Hebraic teachings that are often the strongest or most important. The difficulty arises because many of the sayings of Jesus are actually Hebrew idioms. An idiom is “an expression in the usage of a language, that is peculiar to itself either in grammatical construction or in having a meaning which cannot be derived as a whole from the conjoined meanings of its elements.”[2] Some examples of English idioms would be: “Kill time,” or “Hit the ceiling,” or “Eat your heart out.” Many of the idioms that Jesus used in his teachings can be understood only when properly interpreted in a Hebrew context.

David Bivin relates his own experience as follows:

I began my Bible reading as a teenager. My greatest difficulty was trying to understand the words of Jesus. I would note sayings of Jesus, such as “For if they do these things in a green tree, what shall be done in the dry?”(Luke 23:31);[3] or “…From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force”(Matthew 11:12).[4]

Picture a teenager trying to make sense out of such good King James English as, “I am come to send fire on the earth; and what will I, if it be already kindled? But I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!” (Luke 12:49-50).[5] I would question my pastor or teachers or visiting seminary professors as to the meaning of such passages and would invariably receive the common response: “Just keep reading, son, the Bible will interpret itself.”

The truth is that one can keep reading the Bible forever, and the Bible will not tell him the meaning of these difficult passages. They can be understood only when translated back into Hebrew. What my pastor and teachers should have admonished was, “Son, learn Hebrew! These are all Hebrew expressions or idioms that can be understood only if you know Hebrew.”

These men of God I questioned could not help me; however, they cannot be blamed for the lack of an answer. No one had ever suggested to them that the most important tool for understanding the Bible – both Old and New Testaments – is Hebrew, and that Hebrew is the key to understanding the words of Jesus.

By the time I went to Israel at the age of 24 to study at the Hebrew University, I had almost stopped reading the Gospels. It wasn’t that I wasn’t reading the Bible. I was reading the Bible more than ever before, but I was unconsciously neglecting the Gospels; yet, here were the real words and teachings of Jesus.


Our reasons for writing this book are not only to show that the original biography of Jesus was communicated in the Hebrew language, but to show that the entire New Testament can only be understood from a Hebraic perspective.

Most Christians are aware that the Old Testament was originally communicated in Hebrew, and that it is important to know Hebrew to understand the Old Testament. What they do not recognize, however, is the importance of Hebrew in understanding the New Testament.

It should be emphasized that the Bible (both Old and New Testaments) is, in its entirety, highly Hebraic. In spite of the fact that portions of the New Testament were communicated in Greek, the background is thoroughly Hebrew. The writers are Hebrew, the culture is Hebrew, the religion is Hebrew, the traditions are Hebrew, and the concepts are Hebrew.

We tend to forget that the Old Testament comprises approximately 78 percent of the biblical text, and the New Testament only 22 percent. When we add the highly Hebraic portions of the New Testament (Matthew, Mark, Luke, and Acts 1:1-15:35, [6] approximately 43 percent of the New Testament) to the Old Testament, the percentage of biblical material originally written in Hebrew rises to 88 percent (or 87 percent if we omit the portions of Ezra and Daniel – less than 1 percent of the Old Testament – composed in Aramaic). Not more than 12 percent of the entire Bible was originally written in Greek. When we subtract from that 12 percent the 176 quotations from the Old Testament (14 Old Testament quotations in John and 162 from Acts 15:36 to the end of the New Testament), the percentage of the Bible originally composed in Hebrew rises to over 90 percent.

The assumption that the entire New Testament was originally communicated in Greek has led to a considerable amount of misunderstanding on the part of scholars and laypersons alike. Today, as a result of recent research, we know that the key to our understanding of this material is Hebrew. To this present day there has been in New Testament studies a disproportionate stress placed on the study of Greek and Hellenism. If any additional advances are to be made, especially in better understanding the words of Jesus, the concentration must shift to the study of Hebrew history and culture, and above all, the Hebrew language.



An Examination of the Aramaic and Greek Theories

In view of the fact that the majority of New Testament scholars have in recent times favored an Aramaic or Greek origin for the Synoptic Gospels, it is necessary for us to examine the pros and cons of these two theories.


The Aramaic Theory

It is interesting that the same individuals who espouse the inerrancy of the Scriptures will take the specific passages in the New Testament that refer to Jesus speaking Hebrew (Acts 26:14), or Paul speaking Hebrew (Acts 21:40), and say, “That means Aramaic, and not Hebrew.”

The “Aramaic Theory” has so heavily influenced biblical scholarship that even those who should be the most capable of working with the biblical text, namely, Bible translators, have translated “Aramaic” when the original text specifically states “Hebrew.” For example, The New International Version, published by Zondervan Bible Publishers, in both of the above-mentioned passages in Acts, purposely translates “Hebrew” as “Aramaic,” and only in 26:14 does it even bother to give the footnote “or Hebrew” in italics at the bottom of the page. The New American Standard Bible translates “Hebrew dialect” in both passages, but adds the footnote, “i.e. Jewish Aramaic.”

Since the majority of scholars have favored Aramaic origins for the Synoptic Gospels, there must be strong reasons for their acceptance of this theory. But, when one examines the evidence, one learns that there are no strong reasons available to support an Aramaic origin apart from the appearance of certain Aramaic, or what often seem to be Aramaic, words or phrases scattered through the New Testament text, particularly the text of the Gospels. In fact, there is much stronger evidence against the theory of Aramaic origins.[7]

According to the Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus, and Codex Bezae, three of the most ancient Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, dating from the fourth and fifth centuries A.D., it is stated that the inscription “This is the King of the Jews” (Luke 23:38) over the cross of Jesus was written in “Greek, Latin, and Hebrew letters.” Is it not significant that the oldest Greek textual tradition infers that Hebrew was more popular than Aramaic in this period?

Those who claim an Aramaic cultural milieu for that period have often noted that our Gospels contain Aramaic words like “Talitha cumi,” “Ephphata,” “Rabboni,” and a few others. Although it is true that our Gospels do have some Aramaic words, so do all the Hebrew documents written around the time of Jesus – for instance, the Mishnah and the Dead Sea Scrolls. The Book of Jeremiah, dating from a much earlier period and overwhelmingly Hebrew, includes a sentence in Aramaic (Jeremiah 10:11). Even the Book of Genesis contains a two-word Aramaic phrase (Genesis 31:47).[8]

In the Hebrew of the first century, we find many Aramaic loan words, i.e., words borrowed from Aramaic. This is also true of the New Testament; however, upon closer scrutiny, many supposed Aramaic words turn out to be Hebrew. For instance, sikera (strong drink, Luke 1:15), is always included in lists of the Aramaic words of the New Testament. Because of the ending “a,” it is assumed that sikera is a Greek transliteration of the Aramaic shikra, rather than the Hebrew sheichar. However, if one will check in Hatch-Redpath’s A Concordance to the Septuagint,[9] he will note that sikera is the standard Greek translation of the Hebrew sheikar. The “a” ending is not the Aramaic definite article, but simply the Greek neuter ending. What is true of the “a” in sikera is also true of the “a” in Sabbata (Matthew 12:10) and Pascha (Passover, Luke 2:41).

Even the presence of an Aramaic word, such as Abba (Mark 14:36), does not prove the existence of an Aramaic original. Abba appears over and over in the Hebrew writings of the period as a loan word, borrowed from Aramaic because of its special flavor and used in the same way as we use “daddy” or “papa” in English. Today, in modern Israel, children use Abba in addressing their fathers, exactly the same way as it was used in the time of Jesus.

Perhaps the most often quoted Aramaism in the New Testament is the sentence in Mark 15:34, “Eloi, Eloi, lama sabakthani.” These words are Aramaic, but it is doubtful that Jesus spoke them as Mark records – the people hearing the words thought Jesus was calling Elijah. For them to make such a mistake, Jesus would have to have cried, “Eli, Eli,” not “Eloi, Eloi.” Why? Because Eli in Hebrew can be either “My God,” or a shortened form of Eliyahu, Hebrew for Elijah. But the Aramaic “Eloi” can be only “My God.” One must note that Matthew’s account records just that, i.e., “Eli, Eli, (Matthew 27:46). Further, lama (“why”) is the same word in both languages, and sabak is a verb which is found not only in Aramaic, but also in Mishnaic Hebrew.

On the basis of the few Aramaic words that might be found, should we overlook the many more numerous Hebrew words that appear in the Greek text of the Gospels, such as: levonah (frankincense, Matthew 2:11), mammon (Luke 16:9), Wai (Woe! Matthew 23:13), rabbi (Matthew 23:7,8) Beelzebub (Luke 11:15), corban (Mark 7:11), Satan (Luke 10:18), cammon (cumin, Matthew 23:23), raca (a term of contempt; literally, “empty,” Matthew 5:22), moreh (rebel, Matthew 5:22), bath (a wet measure, between 8-9 gallons, Luke 16:6), kor (a dry measure, between 10-12 bushels, Luke 16:7), zuneem (tares, Matthew 13:25), Boanerges (Mark 3:17), mor (myrrh, Luke 7:37), sheekmah (sycamore, Luke 17:6), and amen, which appears about 100 times in the Greek text of the Gospels.

Today, the evidence for Hebrew is quite overwhelming, and yet many Christians still cling to the outmoded Aramaic hypothesis as if their faith depended upon it. Over the years, whenever any scholar argued in favor of Hebrew or when Hebrew scrolls or inscriptions came to light, advocates of the Aramaic theory were quick to explain away the evidence. For example:

1. When the New Testament or Josephus says, “Hebrew,” proponents of the Aramaic hypothesis say “What is meant is ‘Aramaic.’”
2. When only Hebrew, Greek or a few Latin inscriptions were found from the Roman period in the Temple Mount excavations, it was said of the Hebrew inscriptions: “They are only representative of the Hebrew used by the priests in the sacred area, but not indicative of the spoken language of the common man.”
3. It was said of the Mishnah and other rabbinic works: “These admittedly are written in Hebrew, but it is an artificial language used only for study and discussion by the Rabbis and their students in the Talmudic academies.”

Concerning this last argument, it should be noted that as early as 1927, the great Jewish scholar, M.H. Segal, demonstrated conclusively that Mishnaic Hebrew was not an artificial language used only by rabbinic scholars in Talmudic academies, but that it exhibits all the characteristics of a living language.[10]

The authors do not wish to imply that Aramaic, as well as Greek, were not spoken in Israel in the first centuries B.C.-A.D. Certainly most of the people were multilingual, or at least bilingual, with Aramaic, Greek, and even some Latin in common use alongside of Hebrew.

To quote Segal:

What was the language of ordinary life of educated native Jews in Jerusalem and Judea in the period from 400 B.C. to 150 A.D.? The evidence presented by Mishnaic Hebrew and its literature leaves no doubt that that language was Mishnaic Hebrew. Of course, those educated Judeans also understood Aramaic, and used it even in writing, but only occasionally, and not habitually – in the same way as…the Flamund in Belgium may often use French (Segal 1927:13).

Segal’s conclusions were largely ignored by Christian scholars and soon forgotten.

Since the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, however, the leading proponents of the Aramaic theory have gradually begun to modify their views. Matthew Black, for instance, in the third edition [11] of his influential book, An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts, remarks:

The Qumran discoveries have also shed fresh light on the problem. M. Wilcox writes: “With regard to the matter of language, we ought to note that the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls has now placed at our disposal information of a highly interesting and relevant nature…. The nonbiblical texts show us a free, living language, and attest the fact that in New Testament times, and for some considerable time previously, Hebrew was not confined to Rabbinical circles by any means, but appeared as a normal vehicle of expression.”[12]

If this is a correct estimate of the Qumran evidence, where Hebrew certainly vastly predominates over Aramaic, then it may be held to confirm the view identified with the name of Professor Segal that Hebrew was actually a spoken vernacular in Judaea in the time of Christ (Black 1967:47).

It cannot be ignored when discussing the linguistic milieu of first-century Palestine that the foremost Aramaic theorist, Matthew Black, is now obliged to admit: “We must nevertheless allow possibly more than has been done before for the use of Hebrew in addition to (or instead of) Aramaic by Jesus Himself.” (Black, 1967: 49).


The Greek Theory

Although the overwhelming majority of scholars subscribe to a Semitic origin for the Gospels, there are those, nonetheless, such as the English scholar Nigel Turner,[13] who propose a Greek origin. Apart from linguistic and cultural arguments for Semitic origin, it remains an important fact that the poor Greek of the Synoptic Gospels is found basically only in literary works that are translations from Semitic originals, such as the Septuagint.

Many Gospel expressions are not just poor Greek, but actually meaningless in Greek. One brief example will suffice to illustrate this fact. The text of Matthew 6:22-23 literally reads: “The lamp of the body is the eye. If your eye is good, your whole body is full of light; but if your eye is bad your whole body is full of darkness…” The expressions “good eye”[14] and “bad eye” are common Hebrew idioms for “generous” and “miserly.” Greek has no such idioms, and in Greek this statement of Jesus is meaningless, just as it is in English.

Why is the Greek of the Gospels such poor Greek? Very simply, because the Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke are not really Greek, but Hebrew words in Greek dress, or we might say, “translation” Greek. Are we claiming that the Synoptic Gospels were not originally written in Greek? To this we must answer “yes” and “no.” The Synoptic Gospels as we have them today were originally written in Greek; however, the text from which they descended was originally translated from a Hebrew archetype.

It is easy to see how scholars, not understanding this process of Gospel textual transmission, could assume a Greek text. However, it is the undertext of our canonical Gospels that reveals the Hebrew original.[15]

Our canonical Gospels are based on Greek texts derived from the Greek translation of the original Hebrew story of the life of Jesus.

It is most unfortunate that our Bible colleges and seminaries focus their attention on Greek and Hellenistic theology, and fail, by and large, to equip their students with the proper tools that would allow them to do serious biblical exegesis. A strong statement, to be sure; but sadly, all too true. It cannot be overemphasized, that the key to an understanding of the New Testament is a fluent knowledge of Hebrew and an intimate acquaintance with Jewish history, culture, and Rabbinic Literature.

The evidence for Aramaic or Greek origins of the Synoptic Gospels simply will not stand up under critical analysis. There is far more substantial evidence indicating a Hebrew origin of the Synoptic Gospels.

1. See pages 81-82 of the Appendix.
2. Webster’s New International Dictionary of the English Language (G. & C. Merriam Co.).
3. See pages 82-84 of the Appendix.
4. See pages 84-87 of the Appendix.
5. See pages 87-103 of the Appendix.
6. The first 15 chapters of Acts show some of the same textual evidence as the Synoptic Gospels of being originally communicated in Hebrew. They deal with events in Jerusalem and are recounted in a Hebrew context. In Acts 15:36 there is a shift to Greek as Luke himself begins to describe Paul’s missionary journeys.
7. See pages 31-33 for a short history of the Aramaic language.
8. We have previously noted (page 5) that portions of Ezra and Daniel (Ezra 4:8-6:18, 7:12-26; Daniel 2:4-7:28), less that 1% of the Old Testament, were composed in Aramaic.
9. See Bibliography, page 129. (The Septuagint is the Greek translation of the Old Testament, from the second century B.C.)
10. In Fact, Segal first put forward his views in 1909 in an article which appeared in the Jewish Quarterly Review, Volume XX, pages 647-737.
11. The second edition of Black’s book was written before the Qumran texts became available to scholars.
12. Max Wilcox is one of the many student of Professor Black. The quotation is from Wilcox’s The Semitisms of Acts (1965), page 14.
13. See Bibliography, page 130.
14. See the discussion of “good eye” on pages 104-105 of the Appendix.
15. See Chapter 5 for a more detailed discussion of the evidence for the Hebrew undertext.

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/8/2004 10:04p).]
opk
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Bracy, boker tov!

And...an excerpt from a review of the book:

quote:
Im really surprised this book has become as big as it has. Among Messianic Jewish circles I think its impossible to find someones library that is missing it. I know its a scourge on my library. Bivin and Blizzard are good scholars, I wont deny that, but the premise of their book seems incredible.
.
We have virtually no evidence for Hebrew being the primary language of the first century Jew. Most all of the evidence was provided in their book, and its not a very big book. The point here is that Biven and Blizzard presented almost none of the evidence to the contrary - you know, the evidence that has convinced the vast majority of the scholarly community?
.
Dr. Michael L. Brown has written a convincing critique of this book that should be read by all interested in New Testament textual criticism. This book is hardly critical of its own claims and probably overly critical of the claims that the 1st century Jews primary tongue was Aramaic. In sum, Difficult Words brings up interesting talking points, but is by no means an airtight case.


Guitarsoup
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Haven't you seen the movies? English.
Bracy
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opk:

Shalom!

It doesn't surprise me that there are some who disagree with the findings of the book. There is still much debate over the issue.

However, this statement:

quote:
We have virtually no evidence for Hebrew being the primary language of the first century Jew.


... is highly inaccurate. There is actually quite a large amount of evidence that the language of the 1st-Century Jews was Hebrew.
I'm no "scholar" and am not likely to convince anyone myself, but I hope to at least encourage people to look at the evidence themselves, rather than immediately dismiss it without investigation.

I certainly can't list all of the evidence in a single post, or even a single thread, but I can give some examples...

First, as was mentioned in the excerpt above, we have evidence from the "New Testament" scriptures themselves:

quote:
Acts 26:14: And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? [it is] hard for thee to kick against the *****s.


quote:
Acts 21:40: Act 21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto [them] in the Hebrew tongue, saying,


We have evidence from Jewish literature. For instance, the Talmud (Nedarim 66b) relates the story about the difficulties an Aramaic-speaking Jew from Babylon had in communicating with his Jerusalemite wife:

quote:
A certain Babylonian went up to the Land of Israel and took a wife [there]. 'Boil me two [cows'] feet,' he ordered, and she boiled him two lentils, which infuriated him with her. The next day he said, 'Boil me a griwa', so he boiled him a griwa. 'Go and bring me two bezuni;' so she went and brought him two candles. 'Go and break them on the head of the baba.' Now Baba b. Buta was sitting on the threshold, engaged in judging in a lawsuit. So she went and broke them on his head. Said lie to her, 'What is the meaning of this that thou hast done?' — She replied, 'Thus my husband did order me.' 'Thou hast performed thy husband's will,' he rejoined; 'may the Almighty bring forth from thee two sons like Baba b. Buta. [Nedarim 66b]


We have evidence from the findings at Qumran (Dead Sea Scrolls). Among the findings there are numerous Pesharim, all of which are written in Hebrew. Why would Scriptural commentaries be written in a language that the majority of people did not understand?

We have archaeological evidence from the coinage and inscriptions.

quote:
From the 4th Century B.C. until the end of the Bar-Cochba Revolt in 135 A.D., the entire history of Jewish coinage, only one Jewish coin, minted during the reign of Alexander Jannaeus (103-76 B.C.), is inscribed in Aramaic.[Biven, p. 33)[Biven, p. 33]


By contrast, 99 of the coins have Hebrew inscriptions. (Note: the coins inscribed in Greek are more numerous than Hebrew, but almost all of them came from the time of Herod and his heirs).

We have evidence from the Early Church Fathers:

quote:
The first [gospel], composed in the Hebrew language, was written by Matthew...for those who came to faith from Judaism.[Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History VI 25, 4]


I could go on, but hope this should serve as a sufficient sampling of the evidence that is available.


By the way, I don't know if you've seen it or not, but I typed up a rather lengthy reply to your "Which is it?" thread, in case you're interested.

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/9/2004 1:31p).]
Nixter
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King James-esque English

Lots of thee and thine statements.

Seriously though, great topic.
DualAG
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"If English was good enough for Jesus Christ, then it's good enough for the children of Texas."

--usually attributed to Gov. Miriam Ferguson

titan
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Bracy,

Of possible bearing on this is the fact that clues about James indicate that the Brother of Jesus spoke Aramaic.

What I haven't come across is whether Hebrew/Aramaic had an adversarial relationship or not? I know that the Sanhedrin wasn't all that keen on Greek translations, but how did they feel about Aramaic --- did it have some advantage over Hebrew?
YYZ
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Of course the common tongue for the entire Mediterranean basin at that time was Greek, and had been for many years. We know that the Greek Septuagint (LXX) written about 200 BC to address the fact that there were several Jews scattered abroad who simply did not speak, read or write Hebrew. The 70 Hebrew scholars had translated this document to Greek for the same kinds of reasons that we have our English Bibles today, because the Word should be in the language of the Church who is being ministered to. That being said, Greek was not a foreign language to these men, as was stated, it was the common tongue. It was also what was almost assuredly what was spoken by Jesus and the Apostles. It is a given that the Apostles wrote in it, as even the earliest copies of manuscripts we have (written before 100 AD) are all written in Greek. There simply are no NT texts written in Hebrew. People wrote in it because the spoke it.



[This message has been edited by YYZ (edited 1/10/2004 10:55p).]
Orphan
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Is it possible that the Church spoke one language and the people another? From my very small reading into this subject...really sidenotes in pursuit of other subjects...I am led to believe John Q. Galilleean spoke Aramiaic on the street. I wonder if Our Lord was of the same ilk?

david
Ronnie
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I am also leaning with David on this one. Hebrew seems a little more "official" to me. So things like coins and commentaries might be written in some "official" language, like Hebrew. Reminds me of the use of Latin in the Catholic Church.

But what I am struggling with is the referral to this thread from the other. Can you give me a Hebrew interpretation of John 6:54: "Except you eat the flesh of the Son of Man, and drink His blood, you shall not have life in you." Why does it not say what it seems to plainly say, that unless you partake in the Eucharist, you will not have life?
YYZ
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quote:

I am led to believe John Q. Galilleean spoke Aramiaic on the street. I wonder if Our Lord was of the same ilk?


We know he at least shouted out in Aramiaic once while on the cross, as he is quoted as so...

Bracy
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titan:

quote:
Of possible bearing on this is the fact that clues about James indicate that the Brother of Jesus spoke Aramaic.

What I haven't come across is whether Hebrew/Aramaic had an adversarial relationship or not? I know that the Sanhedrin wasn't all that keen on Greek translations, but how did they feel about Aramaic --- did it have some advantage over Hebrew?


I certainly don't think the 1st-Century Jews held any adversarial views of Aramaic. They were, by necessity, multilinguil, and spoke several different languages, to varying degrees of fluency, including Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, and Latin.

If anything suggests that they did not hold an adversarial view of Aramaic it is the simple fact that they decided that "Divinely Inspired Scripture" must be written in Hebrew or Aramaic. Greek was deemed unsuitable.

Here is a quote from Tim Hegg's book, The Letter Writer which helps to clarify:

quote:
Once the Torah was given, the question that eventually faced the Israelite nation, and specifically her Sages, was what of the additional prophetic literature was to be attached to the Torah as the divine word of God. Eventually the phraseology utilized to describe those books that were deemed divinely inspired was that they “rendered the hands unclean.”

…All [Scripture] Scrolls render the hands unclean save the Scroll of [the Torah used in the Temple] Court.[m.Kelim 15.6]

The explanations given for why a sacred object like a Torah scroll would render the hands unclean vary, but the general answer was simply that it was holy and was therefore not to be handled as though ordinary. The way to assure such a reverential handling of the sacred scrolls was to rule that contact with them rendered a person unclean. The point is that only those scrolls considered holy, i.e., divinely inspired, made the hands unclean. Scrolls that did not attain to this level of sanctity, along with all writings of the pagans, did not render the hands unclean.


In order to ensure the reverential handling of divinely inspired scripture, the rabbis ruled that the scrolls themselves "rendered the hands unclean."

quote:
But additionally, the scrolls that render the hands unclean must be written in the original Hebrew or Aramaic, in square script, on parchment, and in ink. Thus, their holy status was the combination of their divine origin (inspiration by the Holy Spirit) as well as their current status within the community (canon). The absence of either requirement could render the scroll less than Scripture. If the scroll were written properly but not inspired, it did not render the hands unclean. If the text were historically considered inspired but was not written properly, the scroll did not make the hands unclean.


Since the requirements for scrolls that rendered the hands unclean included the requirement that they be written in Hebrew or Aramaic, I think it is highly unlikely that any adversarial views were held of that language.

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/11/2004 11:32a).]
Bracy
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YYZ:

quote:
We know he at least shouted out in Aramiaic once while on the cross, as he is quoted as so...


Actually, we know no such thing. In fact, if you had read the excerpt that I posted in my initial post in this thread, the author points out that it is extremely unlikely that Yeshua spoke those words in Aramaic:

quote:
Perhaps the most often quoted Aramaism in the New Testament is the sentence in Mark 15:34, “Eloi, Eloi, lama sabakthani.” These words are Aramaic, but it is doubtful that Jesus spoke them as Mark records – the people hearing the words thought Jesus was calling Elijah. For them to make such a mistake, Jesus would have to have cried, “Eli, Eli,” not “Eloi, Eloi.” Why? Because Eli in Hebrew can be either “My God,” or a shortened form of Eliyahu, Hebrew for Elijah. But the Aramaic “Eloi” can be only “My God.” One must note that Matthew’s account records just that, i.e., “Eli, Eli, (Matthew 27:46). Further, lama (“why”) is the same word in both languages, and sabak is a verb which is found not only in Aramaic, but also in Mishnaic Hebrew.


You're saying that Yeshua spoke them in Aramaic because that is how Mark records, BUT you are ignoring the fact that Matthew records He spoke them in Hebrew. On top of that, as the author stated above, if Yeshua had spoken them in Aramaic, then the people surrounding Him would not have mistaken His words as a call to Elijah, which Mark also records.

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/11/2004 11:59a).]
Bracy
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Orphan:

quote:
Is it possible that the Church spoke one language and the people another? From my very small reading into this subject...really sidenotes in pursuit of other subjects...I am led to believe John Q. Galilleean spoke Aramiaic on the street. I wonder if Our Lord was of the same ilk?


That is a long-held belief, and one which the author addressed in the excerpt that I provided:

quote:
3. It was said of the Mishnah and other rabbinic works: “These admittedly are written in Hebrew, but it is an artificial language used only for study and discussion by the Rabbis and their students in the Talmudic academies.”

Concerning this last argument, it should be noted that as early as 1927, the great Jewish scholar, M.H. Segal, demonstrated conclusively that Mishnaic Hebrew was not an artificial language used only by rabbinic scholars in Talmudic academies, but that it exhibits all the characteristics of a living language.[10]

The authors do not wish to imply that Aramaic, as well as Greek, were not spoken in Israel in the first centuries B.C.-A.D. Certainly most of the people were multilingual, or at least bilingual, with Aramaic, Greek, and even some Latin in common use alongside of Hebrew.

To quote Segal:

What was the language of ordinary life of educated native Jews in Jerusalem and Judea in the period from 400 B.C. to 150 A.D.? The evidence presented by Mishnaic Hebrew and its literature leaves no doubt that that language was Mishnaic Hebrew. Of course, those educated Judeans also understood Aramaic, and used it even in writing, but only occasionally, and not habitually – in the same way as…the Flamund in Belgium may often use French (Segal 1927:13).

Segal’s conclusions were largely ignored by Christian scholars and soon forgotten.

Since the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, however, the leading proponents of the Aramaic theory have gradually begun to modify their views. Matthew Black, for instance, in the third edition [11] of his influential book, An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts, remarks:

The Qumran discoveries have also shed fresh light on the problem. M. Wilcox writes: “With regard to the matter of language, we ought to note that the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls has now placed at our disposal information of a highly interesting and relevant nature…. The nonbiblical texts show us a free, living language, and attest the fact that in New Testament times, and for some considerable time previously, Hebrew was not confined to Rabbinical circles by any means, but appeared as a normal vehicle of expression.”[12]

If this is a correct estimate of the Qumran evidence, where Hebrew certainly vastly predominates over Aramaic, then it may be held to confirm the view identified with the name of Professor Segal that Hebrew was actually a spoken vernacular in Judaea in the time of Christ (Black 1967:47).

It cannot be ignored when discussing the linguistic milieu of first-century Palestine that the foremost Aramaic theorist, Matthew Black, is now obliged to admit: “We must nevertheless allow possibly more than has been done before for the use of Hebrew in addition to (or instead of) Aramaic by Jesus Himself.” (Black, 1967: 49).

titan
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Bracy,

quote:
But additionally, the scrolls that render the hands unclean must be written in the original Hebrew or Aramaic, in square script, on parchment, and in ink. Thus, their holy status was the combination of their divine origin (inspiration by the Holy Spirit) as well as their current status within the community (canon). The absence of either requirement could render the scroll less than Scripture. If the scroll were written properly but not inspired, it did not render the hands unclean. If the text were historically considered inspired but was not written properly, the scroll did not make the hands unclean.


Thanks. Your post there on the status and handling of the scrolls precisely answered my question. For I was looking for what the rabbis view was, the indication of what the Sanhedrin felt about Aramaic.
Bracy
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titan:

No problem, glad you found it useful.

Knowing what a history buff you are, would you like me to provide the author's explanation as to how the Jews came to speak Hebrew instead of Aramaic? I'd be interested in hearing your thoughts on it.

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/11/2004 11:42a).]
Orphan
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Bracy...believe it or not, I read theportion of your post that you-re-posted. I simply find so much disagreement in exactly what language was spoken in that period I thought I would throw some common sense into the discussion.

Could the Priests in theTempl have spoken Hapiru?

david
YYZ
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quote:

Actually, we know no such thing. In fact, if you had read the excerpt that I posted in my initial post in this thread, the author points out that it is extremely unlikely that Yeshua spoke those words in Aramaic:



Yes, well your author is of course one of those special knowledge guys that has every alleged fact spun towards your Messianic Judaism theology. I find it difficult to ingest more than a few paragraphs at a time since there is often in my opinion so much incorrect peppered in with the truth that I can not really stand it. For example your quote even doubts that Mark wrote down what Jesus spoke correctly. So now according to your author I am to believe his language spin job over what the apostle Mark wrote in the scriptures? No thank you… Please just consider me a dissenting commentator.
Bracy
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YYZ:

quote:
Yes, well your author is of course one of those special knowledge guys that has every alleged fact spun towards your Messianic Judaism theology. I find it difficult to ingest more than a few paragraphs at a time since there is often in my opinion so much incorrect peppered in with the truth that I can not really stand it. For example your quote even doubts that Mark wrote down what Jesus spoke correctly. So now according to your author I am to believe his language spin job over what the apostle Mark wrote in the scriptures? No thank you… Please just consider me a dissenting commentator.


If you're not even going to bother reading the material that I provided, then why are you even commenting in this discussion? Don't even try telling me you did read it when it is perfectly obvious from your replies that you didn't.

For example:

quote:
For example your quote even doubts that Mark wrote down what Jesus spoke correctly.


If you had bothered to read the material, you would know that the author made no such statement. He didn't cast any doubt about whether Mark recorded His words correctly, his point was that Yeshua spoke these words in Hebrew, while Mark translated them to Aramaic -- and his point is pretty darn good one if you would bother to READ it:

quote:
Our canonical Gospels are based on Greek texts derived from the Greek translation of the original Hebrew story of the life of Jesus.


Are YOU suggesting that Matthew recorded Yeshua's words incorrectly?

quote:
Matthew 27:46: And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?


If you believe this is merely messianic Jewish mumbo-jumbo, then I would like for you to state a plausible explanation as to why the Jews who heard Yeshua's words on the cross thought He was calling to Elijah. Give me an explanation that is more plausible than that given by the author. Given me an explanation as to why Matthew records His words in Hebrew. Go ahead. Do it.

While you are composing your more plausible explanation, here are few other completely non-credible scholars to peruse:

quote:

Professor David Flusser of the Hebrew University of Jerusalem, and the world's leading Jewish authority on the New Testament and early Christianity, hold strongly to the view that the Life of Jesus was originally composed in Hebrew. He claims there are hundreds of Semitisms (Semitic idioms) in the Synoptic Gospels which could only be Hebrew, but there are no Semitism which could only be Aramaic without also being good Hebrew.


quote:
Dr. Moshe Bar-Asher, who has inherited the late Professor Yehezkiel Kutscher's reputation as the foremost Aramaic scholar at the Hebrew University says that he believes the Synoptic Gospels go back to a Greek translation of an original Hebrew (not Aramaic!) document.


quote:
Dr. Pinhas Lapide, Director of the School for Translators and Interpreters at Bar-Han University in Tel-Aviv, has written an article entitled "The Missing Hebrew Gospel" (Lapide 1974). In this article he discusses the Hebrew origins of the Gospels. Dr. Lapide, a scholar fluent in more than a dozen languages, states:

No less significant is the fact, borne out by subsequent documentary finds at Murabba'at, Nahal Heber, and on Masada, that throughout the first Christian century (and later), religious topics were mainly recorded in Hebrew (Lapide 1974: 169).

Dr. Lapide concludes:

The past century has witnessed the unexpected discovery of such literary treasure-troves as in the Cairo Geniza and the Qumran and Murabba'at caves. It is not impossible that an excavator may yet unearth a fragment of that earliest Hebrew Gospel 'according to the Jews' (Lapide 1974: 170).


quote:
William Sanford LaSor, professor emeritus at Fuller Theological Seminary in Pasadena, California, is an outstanding Semitic scholar. In a lecture delivered in Jerusalem on April 24, 1982, he stated:

With the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, it now seems highly probably that the language Jesus spoke was Hebrew and not Aramaic. The sectarians at Qumran not only wrote their commentaries on books of the Bible in Hebrew, but their manual for new members (the Manual of Discipline) and books regulating hte life of the community, such as the Damascus Covenant, were also written in Hebrew.


quote:
Professor Frank Cross, of Harvard University, is probably the leading living authority on the handwriting of the Dead Sea Scrolls. Professor Cross has stated that by observing the handwriting of the various scribes who copied the scrolls over the centuries at Qumran, it can be seen that the dominant language of Palestine, beginning about 130 B.C., was Hebrew. Since, after 130 B.C., the scribes of Qumran no longer made mistakes when copying Hebrew texts, Cross determined that their principal language was Hebrew, and that they had an inferior knowledge of Aramaic grammar and syntax.


quote:
Another brilliant scholar is Abbe J.T. Milik. Milik, a Polish priest, is well-known in scientific and archaeological circles. He was one of the excavators of Qumran and the most active member of the international team which prepared the scrolls from Cave IV for publication. After a careful analysis of all the textual materials from the Judean Desert, Milik concluded:

The copper rolls and documents from the Second Revolt prove beyond reasonable doubt that Mishnaic [Hebrew] was the normal language of the Judean population in the Roman Period [Milik, 1963: 130].


I see your response as nothing more than a cheap attempt to discredit the author (e.g. "one of those special knowledge guys" ), or perhaps myself, rather than addressing any of the issues being discussed. I should point out that you have made a claim ("there is often in my opinion so much incorrect peppered in with the truth" ), without providing any evidence in support of it.

If you hold the stronger position, then why the need to shift the focus away from the topic at hand, and onto that of the author's (and my own) credibility?

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/11/2004 5:15p).]
Bracy
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Orphan:

quote:
Could the Priests in theTempl have spoken Hapiru?


Hmmm... I'm not quite sure how to answer this. Could you tell me what you mean by "Hapiru?" My understanding may be somewhat different from yours.
Orphan
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Abraham was first known as a "Hapiru".....not to be confused with "Habiru".

Hebrew is probably a derivative of Hapitu.

I'm pulling your leg.

d.
Sink Maggots
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YYZ -- I agree with you.

Bracy -- are the words in the Bible not inspired by God? If they aren't then you could be right. However, the word of God is inspired if you believe what it says. So it is not "Eli, Eli...".

texags77@yahoo.com
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Bracy
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77:

quote:
Bracy -- are the words in the Bible not inspired by God? If they aren't then you could be right. However, the word of God is inspired if you believe what it says. So it is not "Eli, Eli...".



Are you even listening? If the words are not "Eli Eli" then why did Matthew record them this way, and how did the people who heard Yeshua mistake His words as a call to Elijah as Matthew and Mark both record?

Are you saying that Matthew's Gospel is in error? Do you consider the Gospel of Matthew to be divinely inspired?

I challenged YYZ to compose a better explanation of how the Jews who heard Yeshua's words on the cross could have made such a mistake if He spoke those words in Aramaic. I now extend that challenge to you. How could they have misunderstood His words as a call to Elijah, when such a mistake is only possible if He spoke those words in Hebrew?

[This message has been edited by Bracy (edited 1/11/2004 8:48p).]
Sink Maggots
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I am sorry I didn't fully read everything I suppose. All I am saying is that I agree that Jesus spoke greek, and I thought you were saying it's not what the Bible says -- it's something else thus replacing God's words with mans's. Sorry. I suppose I was out of it. I am just not motivated by this board anymore. I don't know.

texags77@yahoo.com
Please feel free to respond by email.

[This message has been edited by 77 (edited 1/13/2004 11:00a).]
Just Tired
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lizzle yo nizzle as yo sizzle?
kwickkick
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Don't know what he did speak, but I do know what he DOES speak...my language. (And I am assuming that everyone worldwide could answer in the same fashion.)
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