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The question here is "what does God's good pleasure mean?" Does it just mean that because it is God's pleasure, it is inherently good, or does it mean, as I maintain, that it is good as measured with respect to God's own expressed standards for goodness? The fact that God has the ability to bestow mercy on whomever He will does not tell us anything about the conditions that He considers in making the determination.
Yes, of course, if it is God's pleasure, then it has to be good. To say otherwise would seem to place God Almighty on a level just above or equal to us. God does not need to inform us about His conditions for bestowing mercy! We should just be thankful for the fact that Scripture tells us that He will indeed bestow mercy on His children. And just for His children, His sheep.
John 10:25-28 (NKJV) Jesus answered them, "I told you, and you do not believe. The works that I do in My Father's name, they bear witness of Me. 26 "But you do not believe, because you are not of My sheep, as I said to you. 27 "My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me. 28 "And I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; neither shall anyone snatch them out of My hand.
It is only Jesus' sheep that hear His voice and respond.
Is it unjust that God only calls certain people to salvation and not others? No, of course not, it's according to His own
good pleasure!
Romans 9:14 (NKJV) What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not!
This question would never arise if Paul didn't intend to be understood as saying that the doctrine of election teaches that the choice rests with God alone. If Paul was saying that God looks ahead and sees if men will believe in him, and on the basis of man's choice, God chooses, this question would never come up. If Paul intends to say that, there would be no place for questions of God's justice. This question indicates that the doctrine of election places the choice with God and God alone.
What is Paul's answer to the question, is God unrighteous? "God forbid", or may it never be --whenever that phrase is used in Romans, it always means that is a false conclusion based upon a correct premise. The premise is, God has chosen some for salvation and that choice rests solely upon his will and purpose. The conclusion is, that's not fair, that is not just. Paul says, "God forbid." That is a false conclusion, though the premise is correct. God is just! The Scripture clearly tells us that God is just.
Genesis 18:25 (NKJV) "Far be it from You to do such a thing as this, to slay the righteous with the wicked, so that the righteous should be as the wicked; far be it from You! Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?"
Psalms 119:137 (NKJV) Righteous are You, O LORD, And upright are Your judgments.
Psalms 119:142 (NKJV) Your righteousness is an everlasting righteousness, And Your law is truth.
Malachi 3:6 (NKJV) "For I am the LORD, I do not change; Therefore you are not consumed, O sons of Jacob.
Whatever God does is absolutely just and righteous, for this very reason, because He does it.
Why is it that God's choosing certain men to salvation is not unjust? Paul gives a principle in a quotation from the Old Testament. Paul doesn't launch out into a great legal debate here, he simply quotes the Old Testament. The Jews would have trouble arguing with their own Scripture.
Romans 9:15 (NKJV) For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion."
This is a quotation from Exodus 33:19. Moses is up on the mountain getting the 10 commandments from God. The children of Israel have just built a golden calf. Because of their idolatry, they all deserved to be destroyed. What happened? God destroyed 3,000 of them and left the rest alive, when they all deserved to be destroyed.
God says, "the principle upon which I work is this, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy." That is a formal declaration of divine prerogative. Election is based upon the mercy of God. For God to choose some for salvation is for God to show mercy to those individuals. God is free to show mercy to whom he will. God showed that mercy to Israel, that's why they weren't destroyed as a nation.
God is sovereign in the exercise of his mercy. Mercy is not a right to which man is entitled. Mercy is that attribute of God by which He pities and relieves the wretched. The objects of mercy then, are those who are miserable and all misery is the result of sin, hence the miserable are deserving of punishment, not mercy. To speak of deserving mercy is a contradiction of terms. God gives mercy to whom he pleases and withholds mercy as it seems good to himself.
John 5:1-9 (NKJV) After this there was a feast of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. 2 Now there is in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate a pool, which is called in Hebrew, Bethesda, having five porches. 3 In these lay a great multitude of sick people, blind, lame, paralyzed, waiting for the moving of the water. 4 For an angel went down at a certain time into the pool and stirred up the water; then whoever stepped in first, after the stirring of the water, was made well of whatever disease he had. 5 Now a certain man was there who had an infirmity thirty-eight years. 6 When Jesus saw him lying there, and knew that he already had been in that condition a long time, He said to him, "Do you want to be made well?" 7 The sick man answered Him, "Sir, I have no man to put me into the pool when the water is stirred up; but while I am coming, another steps down before me." 8 Jesus said to him, "Rise, take up your bed and walk." 9 And immediately the man was made well, took up his bed, and walked. And that day was the Sabbath.
There was a great multitude of sick people and Jesus healed a certain man, one man. This is a case of the sovereign exercise of divine mercy. It would have been just as easy for Christ to have healed the great multitude as it was for him to heal the one man, but he didn't. Why? He chose not to.
Since all of us are sinners, and we all deserve hell, none of us can claim the right to mercy. Therefore, none of us is wronged if mercy is withheld, right? So it is not unrighteous for God to choose to be merciful to some.
Romans 9:16 (NKJV) So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy. "So then" -- election does not depend on the will of man! Paul didn't believe in the free will of man as regarding election, and neither did John.
John 1:13 (NKJV) who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
We are not born again because of a decision of our will. Jesus makes this clear, God must draw us.
John 6:44 (NKJV) "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day.
God's mercy is based upon God's will, it rests in God's choice. God has chosen to show mercy to some and give justice to others. This is based on his sovereign choice alone.