tl/dr: Are other real estate professionals seeing an increase in investors purchasing properties subject to Seller's existing mortgage without assuming any liability?
I live and work in Lubbock, which is a much smaller market than many TexAgers, but I was curious if you all are seeing more and more of these wonky real estate transactions. We've had an increase in potential clients call in to ask us to prepare documents for the purchase of real estate "subject to" seller's existing mortgage. I'm not sure if the influx is because of some Saturday seminar on 'how to get rich off real estate without putting in a dime of your own money', or what, but we have thus far refused to get involved. I'm curious if others are seeing these, and how they are handling them.
In the past, we've prepared deeds that are subject to a prior lien, but they have typically been in family situations. The current influx that we have seen are not an assumption and they are not a wraparound. The Buyer will contract to purchase a property for $100k, with say $5k down. Then they'll back out what's owed on the current mortgage, say $80k, and seller finance the remainder at little to no interest (the most current one had 0.0% interest). In the end, Buyer will own property, owe Seller $15k on very favorable terms, and Seller will remain liable on the $80k first lien (though I suspect Buyer has agreed to make these payments on Seller's behalf).
The most current contract I saw was the epitome of an unconscionable contract, and clearly the creation of someone other than the Buyer who supplied it. The contract was very clear that Buyer was taking the property subject to the mortgage, would assume no liability under the prior mortgage, the seller financed portion was to be non-recourse, and, at any time, the Buyer could quitclaim the property back to the Seller and be free of any and all liability. I believe that Buyer has assured the Seller that Buyer will make the scheduled payments to the first lien holder on Seller's behalf, but there is certainly nothing on paper to support that. In fact, the contract was sworn to by Buyer and Seller before a notary, which is usually a red flag. If the first lien holder accelerates their loan as a result of a breach of the due on sale clause, the new Buyer can scramble for financing or just quitclaim the Property back to the Seller (which creates a number of title issues) and walk away, leaving the Seller to sort out a mess.
Of course, I'm a proponent of the right to contract, the free market and strongly believe in Buyer (or Seller) beware, but this seems like something that will create a rash of bad case law or onerous legislation. The types of Sellers that would ever agree to this are probably the types you would expect.
I live and work in Lubbock, which is a much smaller market than many TexAgers, but I was curious if you all are seeing more and more of these wonky real estate transactions. We've had an increase in potential clients call in to ask us to prepare documents for the purchase of real estate "subject to" seller's existing mortgage. I'm not sure if the influx is because of some Saturday seminar on 'how to get rich off real estate without putting in a dime of your own money', or what, but we have thus far refused to get involved. I'm curious if others are seeing these, and how they are handling them.
In the past, we've prepared deeds that are subject to a prior lien, but they have typically been in family situations. The current influx that we have seen are not an assumption and they are not a wraparound. The Buyer will contract to purchase a property for $100k, with say $5k down. Then they'll back out what's owed on the current mortgage, say $80k, and seller finance the remainder at little to no interest (the most current one had 0.0% interest). In the end, Buyer will own property, owe Seller $15k on very favorable terms, and Seller will remain liable on the $80k first lien (though I suspect Buyer has agreed to make these payments on Seller's behalf).
The most current contract I saw was the epitome of an unconscionable contract, and clearly the creation of someone other than the Buyer who supplied it. The contract was very clear that Buyer was taking the property subject to the mortgage, would assume no liability under the prior mortgage, the seller financed portion was to be non-recourse, and, at any time, the Buyer could quitclaim the property back to the Seller and be free of any and all liability. I believe that Buyer has assured the Seller that Buyer will make the scheduled payments to the first lien holder on Seller's behalf, but there is certainly nothing on paper to support that. In fact, the contract was sworn to by Buyer and Seller before a notary, which is usually a red flag. If the first lien holder accelerates their loan as a result of a breach of the due on sale clause, the new Buyer can scramble for financing or just quitclaim the Property back to the Seller (which creates a number of title issues) and walk away, leaving the Seller to sort out a mess.
Of course, I'm a proponent of the right to contract, the free market and strongly believe in Buyer (or Seller) beware, but this seems like something that will create a rash of bad case law or onerous legislation. The types of Sellers that would ever agree to this are probably the types you would expect.