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If your definition of rejection is keeping it in the Bible and then quoting it in what he viewed as his most important documents, then sure Luther rejected it. It's an odd way to define rejection, but I can accept it in this case.
There's no need for sarcasm, and it evades the point. Luther didn't reject it as useful, he rejected it as authoritative. He put it in the back of the bible, said it was questionable, not of apostolic origin, against scripture, and of limited use. It was antilegomena. I already made this point, I don't know why you're ignoring it.
Do you think it is questionable, not of apostolic origin, against scripture, and of limited use?
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The point is not that Luther didn't like the OT. I never said that. The point is that Luther's theology trumped the Church's use of Scripture in his interpretation of canon. In this, he is the same as Marcion.
No. Luther was quite clear that Sola Fide was taught by the early Church and (again point of the podcast) and that this trumped the Catholics works view of salvation.
You're mixing and matching. I'm not talking about sola fide. I laid it out quite clearly.
Luther : James :: Marcion : OT
The reason Luther had issues with James was because of his theology. It was the theology, or lack of gospel (in Luther's opinion) that showed James to be non-apostolic in origin. You can't say tradition has sola fide, therefore Luther excluded James on the grounds of sola fide tradition. Obviously the Fathers didn't reject it on this ground, because they used James. If they had the same understanding of sola fide as Luther, why didn't they reject it? This is the same kind of circular logic you keep employing. On the one hand, you want to support with tradition; on the other, when tradition doesn't support you, you reject it.
The Church used James for literally 1000 years unified before Luther. They didn't use it solely because it was an argument against sola fide, because sola fide didn't come up as an issue until Luther. But Luther rejected it on the grounds of sola fide. Don't you see the problem with that?
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For the LCMS we have a quia subscription to our Confessions. Or said in english, we believe in the Confessions because they agree with scripture.
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So any example you try to make that starts with something other than Scriptures at the top is simply just you projecting.
You can't possibly not see the problem here. You have to begin somewhere, there has to be an axiom in your proof. I don't care what it is, but it has to be something. If it is scripture, there has to be an assumed canon, i.e., a defined body of scripture. In other words, the question absolute first question is, what is scripture, so that we can agree with it.
But Luther had a problem with James. It almost doesn't matter why, because immediately now the question is - ok... what is Luther using to determine what is scripture, so he can in turn use that scripture to agree with his confessions?
Therefore the canon of scripture as used by literally all of Christendom for 1000 years was
not Luther's axiom, because he had no issue with questioning it. So "scripture" is not the starting point here.
Maybe Luther's starting point was the four gospels and Romans. I don't know. But then you can't just say "scripture" because "scripture" includes Hebrews, James, Revelation for Christians today, and had for 1000 years.
Everyone uses some rule to determine "what is scripture". It doesn't matter if that rule is, "whatever is in the book that says 'The Bible' at the store" there is still some implicit rule that tells us -
this is trustworthy,
this is the arbiter,
this is the starting point.
I really don't know any other way to explain this. Do you see my point? I don't care necessarily that you agree, I just want to make sure you actually follow what I'm saying, because I feel it's pretty cut and dry.
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You start with "Dogmatic fact of life" or more clearly "Tradition"
Obviously. When the Church began, when the Apostles taught the nations, there was no NT scripture.
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You need a parallel path of "not in scripture"
Please, tell me what my Church does that is not in scripture? I'd love to know. I've yet to find anything.
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However, it is good for you to acknowledge that the Father's do get downplayed in favor of "Tradition." It's good to acknowledge that the Fathers are downplayed in favor of what the East has decided. That's important to realize.
This is just dense. Nothing happens in a vacuum. The Fathers didn't pop out of their mother's wombs fully formed. They were taught, they learned, they experienced. Some of them were pagans before they became Christians as adults (St John Chrysostom or St Augustine for example). Some were raised by saints (St Gregory the Theologian's mother was St Nonna). Some were monks, and trained in monasticism (St John Cassian for example). They received the scriptures, the confessions, the life in the Church. This in turn framed and influenced their writing, and they illumined it in return. They dogmatized from their experience.
Dogmatic fact is the starting point, because this literally began the moment St Peter opened his mouth at Pentecost. Every action, every word, every writing, every prayer that was taught and sanctioned by the Apostles is a part of dogmatic fact, because
it happened. Every public teaching that was entrusted in the presence of many witnesses (2 Timothy 2:2) is a part of the continous chain of dogmatic fact. When you say the Lord's Prayer, you're
in dogmatic fact, because this is passed on to us by Tradition. When you say the words "this is my Body" etc. you are living in dogmatic fact, because this is passed on to us by Tradition (this is explicit in 1 Corinthians 11:23).
Arguing against dogmatic fact as the bedrock of our faith is an argument against scripture, because scripture appeals to this and is in fact produced by it. It's more or less arguing against history as well, because we know with absolute, complete and utter certainty that the Church existed before any NT scripture, and flourished for literally centuries before there was a uniform canon.