wargograw said:
It's found throughout Romans. It's found in 2 Corinthians 5:21. You don't believe in it. I do. I'm happy to address the atonement, but we don't need to do a whole debate on justification.
But I thought you said he can wantonly forgive sin? Now he's judging people by their deeds? What happened there?
Please answer my questions about the curse and the cup. Curious how you address that.
Salvation is a multipart event. The Incarnation, the Cross, the Resurrection of Christ, the General Resurrection, and the Last Judgment are all part of it.
You make it out as if without the Father punishing, killing the Son, the Son cannot forgive sins. This is hogwash, this is not the purpose of the cross. This is not found in Romans or any other scripture. 2 Corinthians 5:21 says he becomes sin, not that he was punished for our sins by the Father. He became sin, and in doing so destroyed sin. "And the Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it." How can the King of Glory become sin and be tarnished by sin? Answer: He can't, in becoming sin, sin is consumed. The same way as in dying He destroys death.
The Son of Man has the authority to forgive sin. He tells us that over and over gain. He also will come and judge the living and the dead and render according to their deeds. There is no conflict between the two.
Christ forgives our sins while we are yet sinners. He reconciles us through his blood and in doing so cancels the ancestral curse, our inheritance, the consequences of sin. The judgment is to come, for this reason St Paul says "the doers of the Law
will be justified ...on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus."
I don't understand your question about the cup and the curse.