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Ehrman's point, which isn't fringe, is that Jesus wasn't explicitly believed to be God early on. There is a significant difference between how he is described in the earlier gospels like Mark and then how Jesus is explicitly deified in John which was the latest
Bart is a very educated, knows Greek, first century history, and has scripture memorized.
John MacArthur is very educated, knows Greek, first century history, (and probably has most of the NT memorized). Who is right and who is wrong is based upon their claims.
Bart's logic, of the gospels Mark was written first, John was written last. Jesus verbally claims to be God in John and not so much in the gospel of Mark. "If Jesus was God, why wouldn't He tell everyone" Conclusion, we completely throw the gospel of John out because it's not earliest.
Issues I have with his logic:
- Withouth having a degree in Hebrew, who is speaking in Malachi 3:1? OT
3 "Behold, I am going to send My messenger, and he will clear the way before Me. And the Lord, whom you seek, will suddenly come to His temple; and the messenger of the covenant, in whom you delight, behold, He is coming," says the Lord of hosts. - Why does Mark quote this and then describe the Messenger?
- Why does Mark call Jesus the Son of God? How many times is this used for Jesus in the book?
- Without having a degree in the Greek language, read John 5: For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.
- Who does the non-Christian, 1st century audiance understand the phrase " Son of God" to mean?
- Direct Claim - For whoever is ashamed of Me and My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, the Son of Man will also be ashamed of him when He comes in the glory of His Father with the holy angels."
- Indirect claims: these are fun little puzzles in which one must pay close attention to the text or they will miss it - Lord 8 As He was getting into the boat, the man who had been demon-possessed was imploring Him that he might accompany Him.19 And He did not let him, but He *said to him, "Go home to your people and report to them what great things the Lord has done for you, and how He had mercy on you." 20 And he went away and began to proclaim in Decapolis what great things Jesus had done for him; and everyone was amazed.
- Why didn't Jesus say, report to them what great things I have done for you and he credits the Lord? Did Jesus help Him or the Lord?
- How many times does strongs number 2962 refer to both God and Jesus in the gospel of Mark? How many times?
- "Why is it that the scribes say that Elijah must come first?"12 And He said to them, "Elijah does first come and restore all things. And yet how is it written of the Son of Man that He will suffer many things and be treated with contempt? 13 But I say to you that Elijah has indeed come, and they did to him whatever they wished, just as it is written of him." Im Malachi 4 who was Elijah preceeding in this prophecy? How does Jesus view Himself?
- raising the dead, forgiving sins (only a person who is sinned against can forgive a sin and all sin is against God. Jesus is God and therefore forgave sins. The audience understood this connection.
These are just a few places in Mark where we find indirect claims, direct claims, and understand that Mark know's who Jesus is claiming to be and that Jesus knows who He is. Although we do find more direct claims in John, it's not an overwhelming amount. The question is, why are the books different and what all other ways are they different? Do their differences mean that one is more true than the other?
- Mark for one is not focused on Jesus teaching, it's action oriented. Jesus did this, went here, did this, said this, immediately left.
- John told us he wrote his gospel to specifically expound on Jesus identity so that we would have a deep understanding and believe.
- In the gospels we have 4 books written about one person from different perspectives focussing on different aspects of His life, for different audiciences for different purposes. They are all complimentary accounts.
- The fact that John is written later than Mark doesn't invalidate any of John claims.
If we appled Bart's logic to his own claims about Jesus his would be the first to be dismissed for arriving 2000 years after the events.
Jesus was always God, and before His earthly appearance 2000 years ago.
500 plus BC. Zechariah 12:10 "I will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of supplication, so that they will look on Me whom they have pierced; and they will mourn for Him, as one mourns for an only son, and they will weep bitterly over Him like the bitter weeping over a firstborn.