JJMt said:
A primary difference between the patristic texts and the NT canon is authorship. All of the NT canon was written by apostles except for the two books by Luke and the gospel of Mark - all three of which are books of the historical actions and sayings of the apostles as witnessed first hand by Luke and as gathered directly from the apostles by Mark.
The patristic writings share none of those characteristics. None of the fathers were explicitly chosen by Christ to be His apostles. There is no obvious characteristic of the patristic writings that would seem to give them any greater weight than the writings of a modern Christian scholar or devout person.
And some of them are clearly ridiculous, such as the writings of Clement about the phoenix. I tried reading some of the patristic fathers simply because of their antiquity and their closer proximity in time to the apostles (Clement probably knew Peter personally) but gave up because of the obvious difference in substance and style between them and the scriptures.
Holy Scripture has authority that the Church Fathers do not. Note that this includes all scripture, including the old testament. But since every Christian church considers the scriptures authoritative, what's the point of saying this? It's not being argued.
You should consider the only reason we know what we know about the authorship of the NT texts is because of Holy Tradition. For example, a great deal of our knowledge of the lives of the Apostles is recorded by a father - Eusebius. Most of the NT texts are not identified in the texts themselves. The titles of the books, etc. are much later additions. You want to take "the Bible" as an entity, when for the vast majority of the life of the church, this entity as it currently exists is horribly anachronistic.
As for personally chosen by Christ -- yes. But consider the Apostles replaced Judas with Matthias, guided by the Holy Spirit. The Apostles considered Matthias to have the place of Judas as one of the Twelve. There is scriptural precedence for apostolic succession.
I'm not a patristics scholar (the sheer volume in this category makes this a lifetime vocation) but I've read a lot of a lot of them. The "obvious characteristic" of their writing you're missing is its witness to the truth of the Faith. I've said this repeatedly. It's not true because of who wrote it or when or what the topical matter is. It is
only authoritative as it aligns with the dogmatic fact of the Faith. And, just as the scriptures, continued preservation, use, and reference by the Church is what confirms this authority. There is such a strong harmony of the faith across centuries when you read the Fathers. There is a difference in style, yes; but there's an incredible stylistic difference between the writings of St Paul, St Peter, and St John in the NT. But this is a beautiful witness to the reality of life in Christ, that our personhood is not subsumed into Christ but manifested in perfection through Him. The fathers write in their own voices, just as the authors of the NT did. Simply put, I believe you're reading them incorrectly, with a purpose that their writings may or may not be useful for.
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Finally, no church seems to give enough weight to John 1:1-3. The significance of that passage is staggering. That is, the Bible itself is, in some supernatural way that we cannot understand, a manifestation of Christ himself. So, as Christ is the head of the church, and the sole foundation stone of the church, the Bible is also. Those first three verses of John, together with similar passages describing Christ as the Word, seem to me to be strong support for relying on the Bible, if not as sola scriptura, at least as paramount to church authority or the writings of any other men.
I'm sorry, my friend. Your exegesis of this passage is not correct. As I've said previously, if we ever say "no church agrees with me" or "everyone else is missing this" we should immediately stop and humble ourselves. There have been millions of Christians, many of them staggeringly intelligent, many of them incredibly holy and pious.
The way you have formulated this borders on bibliolatry. First, "The Bible" did not exist when St John wrote those words. Much like St Paul's reference to scripture to St Timothy is certainly talking about the OT, St John was not writing about the book you have, with book titles, chapters, verses, etc. Holy Scripture is not Christ. Holy Scripture is an
icon of Christ, it does point towards the prototype, but that is where it ends. In a passage speaking about the Transfiguration on Mt. Tabor, St Maximos refers to the scriptures as the robes of Christ, shining and radiant. But he also cautions that those robes
are not Christ; that if we grasp at them in error we may end up like Potiphar's wife, with the robe but not the Man.
John 1 may be one of the most difficult passages to correctly discuss in English, because St John is one of only three saints that bear the title the Theologian (along with St Gregory and St Simeon). This passage is one of the reasons - he was able to synthesize and express truths about God that are ineffable in a way that is enlightening to us without introducing an error. The language is precise, significant, and deeply meaningful. We should tread carefully here, and any time we talk about God or the mystery of the Trinity.
The word St John is using there is Logos. The Septuagint (LXX) is the Greek translation of the OT and is frequently quoted in the NT. This gives us an opportunity to see other ways this word is used. The word logos in the OT is a concept of thought, reason, wisdom, plan, but it can also simply mean word.
Here are some examples of this from the LXX, which are echoed in John 1:1, the bolded portion of the second in John 1:4:
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By the word (logo) of the LORD the heavens were made, And by the breath of His mouth all their host. Psalm 33:6
My soul cleaves to the dust; Revive me according to Your word (logon). Psalm 119:25
Forever, O LORD, Your word (logos) is settled in heaven. Psalm 119:89
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And Moses made an end of speaking all these words to all Israel; And he said unto them, Set your heart unto all the words (logous) which I testify unto you this day, which ye shall command your children to observe to do, even all the words of this law. For it is no vain thing (logos) for you; because it is your life, and through this thing ye shall prolong your days in the land, whither ye go over the Jordan to possess it. (Deuteronomy 32:45-47)
Similarly, in pagan philosophical usage at the time (which some of the authors of the NT are clearly familiar with, see Acts 17) the word logos means rational outpouring or purpose of the universe. The Church has always baptized secular language to express divine truths, especially the metaphysical truths such as the formulation of the trinity, etc. and this case is no different.
When St John here speaks of the Word, what he is saying is that Christ is no mere man, no mere creation, but the very reason, wisdom, and expression of wisdom of the Father. He is saying that Christ is the agency by which the Father creates, and the manifestation of the promises of the OT which give light and life to men. This the identification of Christ with the second person of the Trinity. This is saying that God created through Christ. That Christ is the light and salvation and revelation and manifestation of God the Father, that He
is God. This is
not a reference to the Bible. The Bible is a reference to this.
St Augustine has a beautiful homily on this passage. You can read it
here.
St John Chrysostom spends three homilies just on John 1:1! And another on John 1:3. Read them. They're amazing.
Homily 2Homily 3Homily 4Homily 5